Cisco 200-301 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Which two statements correctly describe how the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) operates in a network? (Select two.)

A. STP prevents routing loops in Layer 3 networks
B. STP avoids switching loops within Layer 2 domains
C. The root bridge is chosen based solely on the lowest MAC address
D. The root bridge is elected based on the lowest bridge priority
E. STP guarantees full resolution of all redundancy-related network issues

Correct Answers: B, D

Explanation:

Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a foundational mechanism in Layer 2 networking, primarily designed to prevent switching loops in Ethernet-based topologies. These loops can be extremely harmful because Layer 2 devices, such as switches, lack loop-prevention logic by default. When broadcast frames loop indefinitely, they lead to broadcast storms that degrade network performance or cause complete outages.

Option B is correct because STP’s primary role is to eliminate Layer 2 switching loops by intentionally blocking redundant paths in a network topology. This ensures that data flows in a single, loop-free direction, even when redundant links exist to provide failover capabilities. STP actively monitors the network and recalculates the spanning tree topology whenever changes occur, such as a switch going offline or a new switch being added.

Option D is also correct. The election of a root bridge—the central switch that all others calculate their best path to—is determined by the bridge ID, which consists of the bridge priority and MAC address. The switch with the lowest bridge priority becomes the root bridge. If multiple switches share the same priority (default is often 32768), then the switch with the lowest MAC address is chosen. Therefore, bridge priority is the primary factor, and MAC address is used only as a tie-breaker.

Now, why are the other options incorrect?

• Option A is inaccurate because STP operates exclusively at Layer 2, dealing with MAC addresses. It is not involved in Layer 3 routing, where protocols like RIP, OSPF, and BGP are used to prevent routing loops.

• Option C is misleading. While MAC address plays a role, it is not the sole criterion for root bridge election—it only comes into play if bridge priorities are equal.

• Option E is an overstatement. Although STP is effective in preventing loops, it does not address every issue caused by redundant links. For instance, STP may introduce slow convergence times, and misconfigurations can still lead to unanticipated network outages or suboptimal path selection.

In summary, STP is essential for ensuring a stable and loop-free Layer 2 environment. It does so by electing a root bridge based primarily on the lowest priority value, and by blocking redundant paths that might otherwise form loops. The correct and complete answers are B and D.

Question 2:

Which two devices can be configured with Layer 3 interfaces to enable communication across different IP subnets? (Select two.)

A. Switch
B. Router
C. Hub
D. Bridge
E. Wireless access point

Correct Answers: A, B

Explanation:

Routing between different subnets is a Layer 3 function and requires network devices that can analyze and forward packets based on their IP addresses. Devices with Layer 3 interfaces are capable of handling this task by assigning IP addresses to ports and applying routing logic.

Option A, the Switch, is correct—but only when referring to a Layer 3 switch. While traditional switches operate at Layer 2 and forward traffic based on MAC addresses, Layer 3 switches possess routing capabilities. They support SVIs (Switched Virtual Interfaces) or routed ports, which allow them to perform inter-VLAN routing. In enterprise networks, Layer 3 switches are commonly used to route traffic between VLANs directly, offering higher performance and lower latency than using separate routers for the same function.

Option B, the Router, is also correct. Routers are dedicated Layer 3 devices, explicitly designed to connect and route traffic between different IP networks. Each interface on a router typically belongs to a different subnet and is configured with an IP address. Routers use routing protocols and routing tables to determine the best path to a destination network, making them essential for both enterprise and internet-scale communication.

Now let’s analyze the incorrect options:

• Option C, Hub: A hub is a Layer 1 device. It lacks intelligence and simply replicates incoming electrical signals to all connected ports. It cannot inspect MAC or IP addresses and is completely incapable of handling any Layer 3 tasks, including routing.

• Option D, Bridge: A bridge operates at Layer 2, similar to a basic switch. Its job is to filter and forward traffic based on MAC addresses, but it cannot interpret or route IP packets. Therefore, it cannot be configured with Layer 3 interfaces.

• Option E, Access Point: While modern wireless access points may have IP addresses for management purposes, they operate primarily at Layer 2 to facilitate wireless connectivity. They are not designed to route packets between different IP subnets. At best, some APs might offer basic NAT or DHCP functions, but full Layer 3 routing is not within their core capabilities.

In conclusion, both routers and Layer 3 switches are capable of handling routing between IP subnets by using Layer 3 interfaces. These devices enable inter-subnet communication and form the backbone of IP-based network infrastructure. The correct answers are A and B.

Question 3:

To ensure secure remote administration of a Cisco network device, which two settings must be configured? (Choose two.)

A. Enable SSH for encrypted administrative access
B. Use HTTP for web-based device access
C. Apply an access control list (ACL) to restrict access by IP address
D. Shut down all unused ports to block unauthorized local connections
E. Enable Telnet for basic management sessions

Correct Answers: A, C

Explanation:

Maintaining secure remote access to Cisco network devices is essential for network integrity and operational safety. Two of the most effective ways to secure such access include enabling encrypted communication protocols and restricting access to trusted IP addresses.

Option A, enabling SSH (Secure Shell), is a fundamental best practice. SSH offers encrypted command-line access to the device, protecting sensitive information—such as usernames, passwords, and configurations—from being intercepted. SSH replaces the insecure Telnet protocol, which transmits data in plain text and is highly vulnerable to packet sniffing and man-in-the-middle attacks. Cisco IOS devices support SSH after generating cryptographic keys and configuring user authentication settings. Once set up, SSH ensures that administrative commands and sessions are encrypted end-to-end.

Option C, configuring Access Control Lists (ACLs), allows you to define which IP addresses or subnets are permitted to connect to the device for management purposes. This adds a critical layer of control by restricting access to known, authorized sources. ACLs can be applied to VTY lines (for SSH or Telnet access) or to HTTP(S) servers if GUI access is enabled. Without ACLs, a device might be accessible from any network segment, increasing the risk of unauthorized intrusion.

Let’s clarify why the other options are incorrect:

Option B, HTTP, is not secure. Although Cisco devices can be managed via a web interface, HTTP traffic is unencrypted. Instead, HTTPS should be used to protect data integrity and confidentiality during web sessions.

Option D, disabling unused physical ports, is a good physical-layer security measure, but it is not directly related to remote or encrypted management access. While it reduces the surface area for local attacks, it doesn’t secure SSH or web-based access.

Option E, enabling Telnet, is discouraged. Telnet lacks encryption and exposes all data during transmission. It's a legacy protocol and should be replaced with SSH in any security-conscious environment.

In conclusion, to ensure secure management access to a Cisco device, administrators must use encrypted protocols like SSH and restrict access through ACLs. These two measures significantly enhance security by protecting session data and preventing unauthorized login attempts.

Question 4:

What are two core advantages of using VLANs in a network design? (Choose two.)

A. VLANs improve network segmentation and isolate traffic between groups
B. VLANs allow departments or user roles to be logically separated on the same infrastructure
C. VLANs are designed to slow down network traffic for security purposes
D. VLANs must use a routing protocol to function across multiple switches
E. VLANs place all users in the same IP subnet to ease administration

Correct Answers: A, B

Explanation:

Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs) are a foundational feature in modern Ethernet networks. They allow for logical segmentation of a physical network into smaller, more manageable broadcast domains. VLANs enhance both performance and security and are widely used in enterprise network architectures.

Option A is correct because one of the primary functions of VLANs is to isolate traffic. By separating devices into different VLANs, broadcasts and multicast traffic are confined to members of that VLAN only. This improves overall network efficiency and prevents devices in one VLAN from seeing or interfering with traffic in another unless inter-VLAN routing is explicitly configured. This isolation also supports better security postures by segmenting sensitive areas of the network, such as finance or HR departments, from general user traffic.

Option B is also correct. VLANs allow administrators to logically group devices based on organizational roles or functions, regardless of their physical location. For example, employees in the Sales department across different buildings can all be assigned to the same VLAN. This logical grouping simplifies network administration, supports tailored access control policies, and enables differentiated Quality of Service (QoS) settings per group.

Let’s assess why the other options are incorrect:

Option C, suggesting VLANs are designed to reduce performance, is false. VLANs actually enhance network performance by reducing unnecessary traffic and improving routing efficiency within domains.

Option D, stating that VLANs require a routing protocol to work across switches, is misleading. VLANs themselves operate at Layer 2 and function without routing protocols. However, inter-VLAN communication does require a Layer 3 device (like a router or Layer 3 switch), but that does not necessarily mean a dynamic routing protocol like OSPF or EIGRP is required—static routes or SVIs (Switched Virtual Interfaces) are often sufficient.

Option E is inaccurate because each VLAN typically maps to a separate IP subnet, not a shared one. Grouping all users in a single subnet undermines the very purpose of VLAN segmentation, which includes enforcing boundaries through subnetting and access controls.

To summarize, VLANs offer critical advantages in network segmentation and management, especially when organizing users by role or function and improving security and traffic control. Thus, A and B are the best choices.

Question 5:

Which two types of Network Address Translation (NAT) allow several internal private IP addresses to share a single external public IP address? (Select two.)

A. Static NAT
B. Dynamic NAT
C. PAT (Port Address Translation)
D. NAT64
E. Overloading NAT

Correct Answers: C, E

Explanation:

Network Address Translation (NAT) is widely used to enable private IP addresses on a local network to communicate with the broader internet using public IP addresses. Among the various forms of NAT, two specific types—PAT (Port Address Translation) and Overloading NAT—support the functionality where multiple private IP addresses are translated to a single public IP address.

PAT (Port Address Translation), also known as NAT overload, is one of the most common forms of NAT. It allows multiple devices on a private network to access external networks using one public IP address, by mapping each internal device’s communication to a unique port number. The router keeps a NAT translation table that tracks which internal private IP and port corresponds to which external session. This method is highly efficient and is used in most home and business networks to conserve public IPv4 addresses.

Overloading NAT (Option E) is essentially another term for PAT. In fact, these two are functionally the same, and the terms are often used interchangeably. Overloading refers to the act of sharing one IP address among many devices, using port numbers to differentiate between sessions. This approach is crucial for large networks where public IPv4 addresses are scarce.

Now, let’s address why the other options are incorrect:

• Static NAT (Option A) creates a one-to-one mapping between a private and a public IP address. It does not support multiple internal IPs sharing a single external IP, which means it does not conserve public addresses.

• Dynamic NAT (Option B) maps private IPs to public IPs using a pool of available public addresses, but still maintains a one-to-one relationship. It does not allow multiple devices to share the same public IP, making it unsuitable for large-scale address conservation.

• NAT64 (Option D) is a specific solution that translates IPv6 addresses to IPv4 and is primarily used in environments where IPv6-only hosts need to communicate with IPv4-only services. It is not designed to allow multiple private IPv4 addresses to share a single public IPv4 address.

In conclusion, only PAT and Overloading NAT provide the many-to-one IP address translation necessary for multiple internal devices to access the internet through a single public IP. These forms are widely used due to their effectiveness and scalability.

Question 6:

Which two statements accurately describe key features of IPv6 addressing? (Select two.)

A. IPv6 addresses are 128 bits in length
B. IPv6 uses subnet masks like IPv4
C. IPv6 eliminates the need for NAT
D. IPv6 addresses are written in decimal format
E. IPv6 reuses the same private IP ranges as IPv4

Correct Answers: A, C

Explanation:

IPv6, or Internet Protocol version 6, was created as a long-term solution to the limitations of IPv4, especially the exhaustion of available public IP addresses. Among its most significant improvements are a much larger address space and the removal of the dependency on mechanisms like NAT.

Option A is correct because IPv6 addresses are 128 bits long, compared to IPv4's 32 bits. This dramatic expansion allows for approximately 340 undecillion (3.4 × 10³⁸) unique addresses, making it possible to assign a globally unique IP address to virtually every device on Earth—including IoT devices and mobile gadgets—without running out of space.

Option C is also correct. One of the core design objectives of IPv6 was to restore true end-to-end connectivity. With such a massive address pool, there is no longer a need to translate multiple private addresses to a public one using Network Address Translation (NAT). This simplification enables more efficient routing, improved network performance, and better support for peer-to-peer applications, VoIP, and security protocols that require unique endpoint identifiers.

Now, let’s review why the other options are incorrect:

• Option B is incorrect. IPv6 does not use traditional subnet masks like IPv4 (e.g., 255.255.255.0). Instead, it uses prefix length notation (e.g., /64), which clearly indicates how many bits belong to the network portion of the address.

• Option D is incorrect. IPv6 addresses are written in hexadecimal, not decimal format. A typical address looks like this: 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334, using colon-separated blocks of four hex digits for readability.

• Option E is also incorrect. IPv6 defines its own addressing spaces such as global unicast, link-local, and unique local addresses (ULAs). ULAs (e.g., fc00::/7) are not the same as IPv4’s private ranges (e.g., 192.168.x.x or 10.x.x.x). IPv6 does not reuse IPv4 private space.

In summary, IPv6 introduces a vastly expanded address space and does away with NAT for most use cases, making A and C the accurate choices.

Question 7 (Rephrased)

Which two statements correctly describe the nature and behavior of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose 2.)

A. OSPF functions as a distance-vector protocol
B. OSPF is categorized as a link-state routing protocol
C. OSPF calculates the best route using cost as its metric
D. OSPF relies on broadcast communication for router updates
E. OSPF does not support Variable Length Subnet Masking (VLSM)

Correct Answers: B, C

Explanation:

OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is a dynamic routing protocol designed for efficient routing within an Autonomous System (AS). It is widely deployed in enterprise networks due to its fast convergence, hierarchical design capabilities, and support for modern IP practices.

Option B is correct because OSPF is a link-state routing protocol. This means it maintains a complete map of the network topology using Link-State Advertisements (LSAs). Each router calculates the best path to every other network using the Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm, also known as Dijkstra's algorithm. This approach is more scalable and responsive than distance-vector methods.

Option C is also correct because OSPF uses cost as its routing metric. The cost is calculated based on the bandwidth of an interface—higher bandwidth links have lower costs. This allows OSPF to prefer faster paths through the network rather than simply using hop count, resulting in more intelligent routing decisions.

Let’s now address the incorrect options:

• Option A is incorrect because OSPF is not a distance-vector protocol. Distance-vector protocols like RIP use hop count as the sole metric and share entire routing tables. OSPF, being link-state, only shares network state changes and builds a more comprehensive picture of the network.

• Option D is incorrect as well. OSPF routers use multicast addresses, specifically 224.0.0.5 (all OSPF routers) and 224.0.0.6 (all designated routers), for sending updates. This avoids the inefficiencies of broadcast traffic.

• Option E is incorrect because OSPF does support VLSM. It can interpret and propagate subnet masks of varying lengths, which is critical for modern IP addressing strategies.

In summary, the most defining and accurate traits of OSPF are that it is a link-state protocol (B) and it uses cost as a metric to evaluate routes (C).

Question 8:

Which two commands are commonly used in Cisco IOS to assign a static IP address to a specific network interface? (Choose 2.)

A. ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
B. ip routing 192.168.1.1
C. interface gigabitEthernet0/1
D. interface vlan 1
E. ip address dhcp

Correct Answers: A, C

Explanation:

When configuring an IP address on a Cisco router or switch, the process involves accessing the appropriate interface configuration mode and assigning the IP address using correct syntax. Understanding which commands initiate these steps is crucial for successful network interface setup.

Option C is correct because the interface gigabitEthernet0/1 command is used to enter configuration mode for the physical interface GigabitEthernet0/1. This is a prerequisite step before assigning any IP address. Once in this mode, you can configure interface-specific settings, including IP addressing and protocols.

Option A is also correct. The ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 command assigns a static IP address along with a subnet mask. This command is executed within interface configuration mode and is essential for enabling Layer 3 communication on the device.

Let’s review the incorrect options:

• Option B, ip routing 192.168.1.1, is not valid. The correct use of ip routing is to enable routing on a router, not to assign an IP address. Additionally, this command does not accept IP parameters.

• Option D, interface vlan 1, while used on Layer 2 switches to configure management IP addresses, is not universally used across all interface types, especially on routers or Layer 3 ports. This makes it less appropriate as a general answer for configuring any interface.

• Option E, ip address dhcp, is valid only within interface mode and instructs the device to obtain an IP address dynamically from a DHCP server. However, since the question is about assigning an IP address, the static method (ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0) is more accurate. Additionally, ip address dhcp cannot be used outside interface configuration mode.

In summary, the typical sequence for assigning a static IP involves entering interface mode (C) and applying the IP address configuration (A).

Question 9:

What happens when a switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is not in its MAC address table?

A. The switch drops the frame.
B. The switch sends an ARP request for the destination.
C. The switch forwards the frame out of all ports except the one it was received on.
D. The switch replies to the sender with an ICMP unreachable message.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

When a Layer 2 switch receives a frame, it uses its MAC address table to determine the outgoing interface. The MAC address table maps MAC addresses to physical ports. If the destination MAC address is found in the table, the frame is forwarded only through the corresponding port, making the operation efficient and minimizing traffic.

However, if the destination MAC address does not exist in the MAC address table, the switch has no way of knowing which port leads to that destination. In this scenario, the switch will flood the frame—it sends the frame out of all interfaces except the one on which it was received. This is known as unknown unicast flooding.

This flooding allows the frame to reach its intended destination if it is connected somewhere on the switch. Once the destination device responds, the switch can learn the MAC address and update its MAC table for future traffic.

Now, let’s review the incorrect options:

• A. Dropping the frame would result in failed communication. Switches do not drop frames solely because the MAC is unknown.

• B. Sending an ARP request is a Layer 3 (IP) function. Switches operate primarily at Layer 2 and do not use ARP for MAC addresses.

• D. ICMP messages are used by routers and hosts for IP-level communication, not by switches for unknown MAC addresses.

In conclusion, when faced with an unknown MAC address, a switch takes the safest route: it floods the frame to all ports (except the source) to ensure delivery. This is an essential part of the switch’s learning process.

Question 10:

Which command is used to verify the interface status and IP address configuration on a Cisco router?

A. show ip interface brief
B. show interfaces ip brief
C. show run interface
D. show ip config

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In Cisco IOS, the show ip interface brief command provides a concise summary of all interfaces on a router or switch. This command is extremely useful during troubleshooting or configuration because it displays:

• Interface name (e.g., GigabitEthernet0/0)

• IP address assigned to each interface

• Method of assignment (manual or DHCP)

• Interface status (up/down)

• Line protocol status (up/down)

This command is a favorite among network administrators because it quickly shows whether an interface is active and properly configured. You can use it to verify connectivity, check IP configurations, or determine whether an interface is administratively down.

Now, let’s evaluate the incorrect options:

• B. show interfaces ip brief is not a valid Cisco IOS command. It’s a malformed version of the correct command.

• C. show run interface displays configuration details of a specific interface, but not a summary of all interfaces. It requires the interface name (e.g., show run interface GigabitEthernet0/1), and it's more verbose.

• D. show ip config resembles a Windows command (ipconfig) but does not exist in Cisco IOS.

Understanding and using the show ip interface brief command is essential for interface troubleshooting, IP verification, and basic configuration checks. It’s one of the first commands a network technician learns and uses regularly.

To summarize, the correct answer is A, because it provides a quick, readable snapshot of interface statuses and IP assignments—vital for efficient network troubleshooting.