ECCouncil 212-82 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Thomas works at a company where he is blocked from accessing certain websites on his work computer. Trying to get around these restrictions, he attempts to acquire administrator login details. While waiting for a chance, he intercepts the communication between the system administrator and an application server in an effort to capture the admin credentials.

What kind of cyberattack is Thomas conducting in this case?

A. Vishing
B. Eavesdropping
C. Phishing
D. Dumpster diving

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

In this situation, Thomas is carrying out an eavesdropping attack, which involves the unauthorized interception and monitoring of communications between two parties. Eavesdropping means secretly listening to or capturing information being transmitted, often without the knowledge or permission of those involved. Here, Thomas intercepts the data flow between the administrator and the server to gain access to sensitive admin credentials.

This attack typically employs tools like packet sniffers or network analyzers that capture data packets traveling across the network. By analyzing these captured packets, an attacker can extract confidential information such as usernames, passwords, or session tokens. The objective of eavesdropping is often to use this stolen data to bypass security controls, escalate privileges, or gain unauthorized system access.

Let's clarify why the other options do not apply here:

• Vishing is a form of social engineering conducted over the phone, where attackers impersonate legitimate entities to deceive victims into revealing private data. Thomas is not using phone calls or direct social engineering here.

• Phishing involves tricking individuals into providing sensitive information, usually via deceptive emails or fake websites. Thomas is not manipulating someone to voluntarily give credentials; instead, he intercepts the communication covertly.

• Dumpster diving is a physical security breach where attackers search through discarded materials to find sensitive information. This is unrelated to intercepting digital communications.

Thus, since Thomas is passively capturing communication between the admin and the server to obtain credentials without their knowledge or consent, eavesdropping is the accurate term for this type of attack.

Question 2:

After successfully passing the final interview at a well-known company, Kayden receives an official job offer via the company’s verified email. The email instructs him to respond within a specific timeframe to confirm his acceptance. Kayden accepts the offer by electronically signing the document and replying to the same email. The company verifies his digital signature and records his acceptance. Neither Kayden nor the company can later deny their respective actions in this transaction.

Which fundamental information security concept is illustrated by this scenario?

A. Availability
B. Non-repudiation
C. Integrity
D. Confidentiality

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The concept demonstrated in this scenario is non-repudiation, a critical security principle that ensures that parties involved in a communication or transaction cannot deny their involvement or the authenticity of their actions later. Non-repudiation provides proof of the origin and delivery of data, effectively preventing any party from falsely claiming that they did not participate in or approve a transaction.

In Kayden’s case, the use of an electronic signature plays a central role. His e-signature serves as a cryptographic proof linking him to the acceptance of the offer. The company’s verification of this digital signature confirms that the acceptance was genuine and that Kayden cannot later repudiate (deny) his consent to the offer. This digital binding makes it difficult for either party to refute their part in the agreement.

Additionally, the traceable email communication with timestamps and specified deadlines creates a reliable audit trail. This record documents the sequence and timing of the exchange, further reinforcing accountability. Should any dispute arise, these electronic records serve as credible evidence of the transaction.

From a legal perspective, non-repudiation is essential because it ensures that agreements conducted electronically hold the same enforceability as traditional paper contracts. It protects both the company and Kayden by providing indisputable proof of their actions.

The other options are less relevant here:

• Availability is about ensuring systems and data are accessible when needed, which is unrelated to verifying actions.

• Integrity focuses on preventing unauthorized changes to data, but not on preventing denial of participation.

• Confidentiality protects data privacy, which isn’t the core issue in this context.

Therefore, non-repudiation best fits this scenario as it guarantees that neither party can deny their actions in the offer and acceptance process.

Question 3:

Sam, a software engineer, was given access to an organization’s system for a demonstration. The administrator created an account that restricts Sam’s access strictly to the necessary files for the demo, blocking access to all other files. 

What kind of account did the organization assign to Sam?

A. Service account
B. Guest account
C. User account
D. Administrator account

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

In this scenario, the organization provided Sam with an account that has limited access to only specific resources required for his demonstration. This restriction on access clearly indicates the account was designed to provide temporary or minimal privileges — characteristics that align with a guest account.

Let’s analyze the options to understand why:

• Service account (A): These accounts are used primarily by applications or services, not individual users. They run background processes and generally don’t have interactive login privileges. Since Sam is a person performing a demo, this is unlikely.

• Guest account (B): Guest accounts are created to allow temporary or restricted access for users who do not require full user privileges. They typically have tightly controlled permissions, limiting what files or system functions the user can access. This matches Sam’s scenario perfectly because his access is limited only to demonstration files, preventing him from opening other files.

• User account (C): Standard user accounts usually have broader access, allowing users to interact with multiple system resources and files as needed. Sam’s restricted access contradicts this typical level of privilege.

• Administrator account (D): Administrator accounts have full system access, including the ability to change configurations and access all files. Since Sam’s access is intentionally limited, this option is not suitable.

Therefore, the organization issued Sam a guest account, ensuring he could perform his demonstration without compromising the security of other system files.

Question 4:

Myles, a security specialist, is tasked with protecting company laptops used remotely by employees. He installs essential business applications and antivirus software on these laptops to guard against malware and internet threats. 

Which PCI-DSS requirement does Myles comply with by installing antivirus software?

A. PCI-DSS requirement 1.3.2
B. PCI-DSS requirement 1.3.5
C. PCI-DSS requirement 5.1
D. PCI-DSS requirement 1.3.1

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The installation of antivirus software on company laptops to protect against malware and other malicious threats directly aligns with PCI-DSS requirement 5.1, which mandates:
“Deploy anti-virus software or programs to protect all systems commonly affected by malicious software.”

Here’s why Myles’ actions correspond to this requirement:

• Antivirus deployment: PCI-DSS 5.1 requires organizations to install and maintain antivirus solutions on all systems where malicious software could be a threat. Since laptops are vulnerable to viruses, ransomware, and spyware—especially when used off-site and connected to external networks—this protective measure is essential.

• Protection from external threats: The antivirus software helps detect, prevent, and remove malware that could compromise payment card data or other sensitive business information. Laptops used remotely are exposed to greater risks over the internet, so safeguarding these endpoints is critical for PCI-DSS compliance.

Why the other options are not correct:

• 1.3.2 (A): Deals with segregating cardholder data from other systems, unrelated to antivirus protection.

• 1.3.5 (B): Focuses on restricting access to cardholder data, not malware defenses.

• 1.3.1 (D): Pertains to network segmentation, which is unrelated to installing antivirus software.

In conclusion, Myles fulfills PCI-DSS requirement 5.1 by installing antivirus software to protect laptops from malicious software, ensuring compliance with industry security standards.

Question No 5:

Ashton, a security specialist at SoftEight Tech, has implemented a company Internet access policy that blocks all Internet and system/network usage by default, only allowing access when explicitly permitted. 

What kind of Internet access policy has Ashton established?

A. Paranoid Policy
B. Prudent Policy
C. Permissive Policy
D. Promiscuous Policy

Answer: A

Explanation:

The policy Ashton implemented is a Paranoid Policy. This type of policy is characterized by an extremely cautious approach to access control. It uses a default-deny or deny-all strategy, meaning no user or system can access resources unless explicitly authorized. The goal is to minimize any possible security risks by only permitting what is strictly necessary.

In this scenario, Ashton's policy restricts all forms of Internet and network access on company computers unless a specific exception is granted. This is a textbook example of a paranoid approach, ensuring that any unauthorized or potentially risky activities are blocked by default.

Other policy types are quite different:

• Prudent Policy: Strikes a balance between security and usability. It is cautious but not as restrictive, allowing more freedom while still maintaining reasonable control.

• Permissive Policy: Allows most activities by default and only blocks specific actions. This is the opposite of a paranoid policy.

• Promiscuous Policy: Usually refers to network device behavior where a device accepts all traffic regardless of the intended recipient. It’s not an access control policy like the one Ashton set.

The Paranoid Policy is common in environments where security is paramount, such as government agencies or highly regulated industries. While it maximizes protection, it can also slow down workflows and require significant administrative effort to manage exceptions.

Question 6:

Zion is tasked with overseeing and ensuring the proper operation of physical security systems like surveillance cameras, alarms, and access control devices at his company’s facility. 

Which job title best fits Zion’s responsibilities?

A. Supervisor
B. Chief Information Security Officer
C. Guard
D. Safety Officer

Answer: D

Explanation:

Zion’s role involves managing and verifying the functionality of physical security infrastructure, which points to the role of a Safety Officer.

Let’s consider the other options:

• Supervisor (A): Usually oversees people and workflow rather than directly managing security equipment. They focus more on personnel management than hands-on security system maintenance.

• Chief Information Security Officer (B): This is a senior executive role responsible for the organization’s overall cybersecurity strategy—protecting data, networks, and IT systems from cyber threats. This role does not typically include responsibility for physical security equipment.

• Guard (C): Guards provide physical presence, patrol premises, and monitor security systems but are not usually tasked with maintaining or inspecting security equipment to ensure it works properly.

A Safety Officer (D) is responsible for the physical safety and security of the facility, which includes ensuring that equipment like cameras, alarms, and access control systems are functioning effectively. This role often involves regular inspections, preventive maintenance, and addressing any issues with the physical security infrastructure.

Therefore, Zion’s responsibilities most closely align with those of a Safety Officer, making D the correct choice.

Question 7:

An organization secures its server and database room with a single entry point featuring a lock that requires dialing a specific sequence of numbers and letters via a rotating dial interacting with multiple rotating discs.

What type of physical lock is described in this setup?

A. Digital locks
B. Combination locks
C. Mechanical locks
D. Electromagnetic locks

Answer: B

Explanation:

The lock described in the question matches the characteristics of a combination lock. Combination locks require users to enter a specific sequence—often numbers or letters—by rotating a dial or series of dials until internal discs or tumblers align correctly. This alignment allows the lock mechanism to open.

In this case, the use of a rotating dial that interacts with several other rotating discs strongly points to a combination lock. Such locks are purely mechanical devices designed to provide security without requiring keys or electronic inputs. The lock’s security depends on the complexity of the sequence and the precision of the rotating discs.

Other lock types do not fit the description:

• Digital locks usually operate with electronic keypads or biometric systems, not mechanical dials and discs.

• Mechanical locks is a broad term that includes pin tumbler locks, deadbolts, and others that do not necessarily involve rotating discs aligned by combination sequences.

• Electromagnetic locks rely on magnetic force to secure doors and have no rotating mechanical parts.

Thus, because the lock involves a sequence entered by rotating a dial linked to multiple discs, it clearly fits the profile of a combination lock, making B the correct answer.

Question 8:

Lorenzo, a security expert at a multinational company, implements a centralized system for authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) for the firm’s remote-access servers. This system uses a protocol based on a client-server architecture and operates at the transport layer of the OSI model. 

Which remote authentication protocol did Lorenzo most likely deploy?

A. SNMPv3
B. RADIUS
C. POP3S
D. IMAPS

Answer: B

Explanation:

In this scenario, Lorenzo implements a protocol designed for centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) for remote-access servers. The key hints are that the protocol:

• Uses a client-server model,

• Operates at the transport layer (Layer 4) of the OSI model,

• Is used specifically for managing network access control.

Among the options provided, RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) best fits these criteria. RADIUS is widely used for AAA services in environments where users access network resources remotely, such as VPNs, dial-up, or wireless connections.

RADIUS works by having the remote-access server act as a client that sends authentication requests to the RADIUS server, which then verifies credentials, manages user permissions, and logs accounting data. It commonly uses the UDP protocol at the transport layer, emphasizing its Layer 4 operation.

The other protocols do not fit:

• SNMPv3 is for network device management and monitoring, not AAA.

• POP3S is a protocol for secure email retrieval, unrelated to access control.

• IMAPS is used for secure email access, not authentication for network resources.

Therefore, based on the description and function, the protocol Lorenzo implemented is RADIUS, making B the correct answer.

Question 9:

Malachi, a security expert, has been tasked with securing his organization’s network by controlling and monitoring the traffic flow. He implements a firewall that functions at the session layer (Layer 5) of the OSI model. This firewall inspects the TCP handshake process to verify if connection requests are legitimate before allowing communication to proceed. 

Which firewall technology has Malachi most likely deployed to perform session-level monitoring and validate communication requests?

A. Next Generation Firewall (NGFW)
B. Circuit-level Gateways
C. Network Address Translation (NAT)
D. Packet Filtering

Answer: B

Explanation:

In this scenario, Malachi uses a firewall technology that operates at the session layer of the OSI model and monitors the TCP handshake to ensure that only valid sessions are established. This behavior is indicative of Circuit-level Gateways.

Circuit-level Gateways work specifically at Layer 5 and focus on the establishment and management of communication sessions. By tracking the TCP handshake—which consists of the SYN, SYN-ACK, and ACK packets—these firewalls verify that the session setup is legitimate before allowing data flow. This helps prevent unauthorized or malicious connections by validating that the session request follows proper protocol.

Other options are less appropriate in this context:

• Next Generation Firewalls (NGFW) provide comprehensive security features such as deep packet inspection, application awareness, and intrusion prevention, but they operate across multiple layers and are not specifically focused on session handshake verification.

• Network Address Translation (NAT) is a technique to map private IP addresses to public ones, primarily for address conservation and basic firewall functionality, but it does not validate TCP handshakes or session legitimacy.

• Packet Filtering Firewalls function at Layer 3 (Network layer) and make decisions based on IP addresses and ports, without inspecting session state or TCP handshakes.

Therefore, the firewall described is best identified as a Circuit-level Gateway (B) because it monitors session establishment at the session layer and validates connection requests.

Question 10:

Rhett, a cybersecurity professional, needs to deploy an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) for his organization. He selects a system that initially builds profiles or models representing typical network behavior and then compares live network events against these models to detect suspicious activity. 

What type of IDS detection technique is being employed in this scenario?

A. Not-use Detection
B. Protocol Anomaly Detection
C. Anomaly Detection
D. Signature Recognition

Answer: C

Explanation:

The IDS described in this scenario employs Anomaly Detection, a technique where the system first establishes a baseline of normal network behavior by building models or profiles. This baseline reflects typical patterns such as traffic volumes, connection types, and usage behavior.

Once these normal profiles are set, the IDS continuously monitors incoming traffic, comparing each event to the baseline. When an event deviates significantly from this normal behavior, the IDS flags it as suspicious or anomalous. This approach is particularly effective in identifying unknown or novel attacks that do not match known signatures, making it highly adaptive in environments with evolving threat landscapes.

In contrast, Signature Recognition relies on a database of known attack patterns to detect threats, which limits its effectiveness against new or unknown exploits.

Protocol Anomaly Detection is a more specific form of anomaly detection that focuses on detecting irregularities within protocol behaviors, such as violations of expected TCP/IP rules.

Not-use Detection is not a recognized term or technique in intrusion detection methodologies.

While anomaly detection is powerful, it can generate false positives when legitimate network behavior changes over time, requiring careful tuning.

Overall, since Rhett’s IDS creates models of typical behavior and identifies deviations, the correct answer is Anomaly Detection (C).