Cisco 300-215 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
After a recent security incident, a company discovered that abnormal system activity went unreported due to a heavy workload on the security team. Additionally, incident response was delayed by six hours because upper management was unavailable to approve the required actions.
Which two corrective steps would most effectively reduce the likelihood of these issues happening again? (Choose two.)
A. Implement a system that prioritizes incident response tasks
B. Provide phishing awareness training to the security team
C. Perform a risk assessment of the incident response process
D. Establish a delegation protocol for executive approvals
E. Configure automated escalations for delayed alerts
Correct answers: A and D
The scenario describes a breakdown in incident reporting and delayed decision-making during a cybersecurity breach. Two key weaknesses were identified: the inability of the security team to report the incident in a timely manner due to being overworked, and a significant lag in the response due to unavailable senior management. To address these problems effectively, the organization must make structural changes to both workload prioritization and executive responsiveness.
Option A: Implement a system that prioritizes incident response tasks
This is a direct remedy for the problem of delayed or overlooked incident reporting caused by excessive workload. Without a formal mechanism to prioritize incidents, even critical alerts can get lost in a sea of daily responsibilities. A structured prioritization framework—such as using severity ratings or urgency levels—ensures that high-impact threats are addressed promptly. It allows the team to triage incidents based on threat levels, ensuring that potential breaches are not sidelined due to less important operational duties. This is a proactive, scalable, and sustainable solution.
Option D: Establish a delegation protocol for executive approvals
This tackles the issue of management unavailability. During emergencies, decisions often need to be made within minutes, not hours. A formal delegation plan ensures that when primary decision-makers are unavailable, alternate individuals have the authority to act. Delegated approval not only reduces downtime but also empowers the team to take timely corrective measures, minimizing the impact of an attack.
Why the other options fall short:
Option B is useful for reducing social engineering attacks, but it’s unrelated to the failure in incident reporting or executive delays.
Option C, while valuable, is diagnostic. A risk audit may highlight flaws but doesn’t actively prevent delays or reporting lapses unless followed by structural changes.
Option E improves alert visibility, but without human bandwidth and delegated authority, even escalated alerts can stagnate.
To effectively prevent a repeat of this situation, the organization must prioritize incidents intelligently (A) and ensure someone is always available to make decisions (D).
An engineer is reviewing a ticket from the accounting department, where an employee noticed an unfamiliar application on their computer. The intrusion detection system has logged unusual outbound internet activity from this machine, and the system is also experiencing degraded performance.
What are the two most appropriate steps the engineer should take in response? (Choose two.)
A. Roll back the system to a previous restore point
B. Replace the central processing unit (CPU)
C. Disconnect the device from the network
D. Wipe the hard drive and reinstall the operating system
E. Create a forensic image of the machine
Correct answers: C and E
The engineer is dealing with a potentially compromised workstation. Key indicators include the presence of an unrecognized application, suspicious outbound internet traffic, and reduced system performance. These signs suggest that the system may be infected with malware or part of a broader attack, such as a botnet or an advanced persistent threat (APT). The engineer’s goal at this point is twofold: contain the threat and preserve evidence for further investigation.
Option C: Disconnect the device from the network
This is one of the most immediate and essential steps during a live compromise. If the system is actively transmitting data, this could include sensitive company information or credentials. It may also be receiving commands from a malicious command-and-control server. Disconnecting the workstation from the network helps to halt any ongoing data exfiltration or malware propagation. This step contains the threat without altering evidence, allowing for proper analysis later.
Option E: Create a forensic image of the machine
Taking a forensic image is vital before making any changes to the compromised system. It captures a snapshot of the system's current state, preserving files, logs, registry entries, and running processes. This enables investigators to analyze how the infection occurred, what data may have been accessed, and what vulnerabilities were exploited. It also maintains the integrity of evidence should legal or compliance action be necessary.
Why the other options are not ideal:
Option A (system restore) might undo the infection superficially, but it destroys forensic evidence and does not guarantee the removal of persistent threats.
Option B assumes a hardware issue, but the symptoms more likely point to a software-based compromise. Replacing the CPU is unnecessary and ineffective.
Option D (formatting the drive) will eliminate the threat but also erases all evidence. This step should be the last resort after a complete investigation is done.
In a suspected security breach, isolating the machine (C) and preserving its current state for forensic analysis (E) are critical steps that prioritize both security and accountability.
Based on the network traffic captured in the Wireshark exhibit, what conclusion should a network engineer draw about the suspicious activity observed?
A. Evidence points to a SYN flood attack; the engineer should raise the TCP backlog size and recycle stale half-open connections.
B. The packets suggest a malformed packet attack; the engineer should restrict packet size and define a byte threshold as a defense.
C. The traffic pattern indicates a DNS-based attack; countermeasures include hiding BIND version info and blocking zone transfers.
D. Indicators show ARP spoofing; the engineer should enforce Static ARP entries and fixed MAC-to-IP mappings.
Explanation:
The Wireshark capture in question reveals a repetitive pattern of TCP SYN packets, all sent to a single IP address (192.168.1.159) on TCP port 80—commonly used for HTTP traffic. Several key characteristics make this traffic highly suspicious and symptomatic of a SYN flood attack, a well-known Denial-of-Service (DoS) technique.
First, each packet in the capture is labeled as a SYN packet, with no corresponding SYN-ACK or ACK responses. The SYN flag is used to initiate a TCP connection during the handshake process. When multiple SYN packets are received without the sender completing the handshake, these partial connections accumulate and consume system resources.
Secondly, while all packets share the same destination, the source IP addresses are varied, which suggests two possibilities:
The attack may be distributed across multiple hosts.
More commonly, these source addresses are spoofed, making it harder to trace the attacker and circumvent blacklisting.
This type of flooding causes the server’s connection queue to fill up, preventing legitimate users from establishing valid TCP sessions. The result is denial of access to a network service, which is exactly what a SYN flood aims to accomplish.
To mitigate this type of threat, engineers commonly:
Increase the TCP backlog queue size, allowing more half-open connections before the queue overflows.
Enable SYN cookies, which delay resource allocation until the handshake is complete.
Recycle half-open connections more aggressively, freeing slots by eliminating the oldest unacknowledged connections.
Now evaluating the other options:
Option B is incorrect. There's no sign of malformed packet structures. Packet lengths and headers are consistent and within normal limits.
Option C is irrelevant as no DNS traffic (typically seen on UDP port 53) is shown.
Option D misinterprets the protocol. ARP spoofing manipulates ARP tables and uses ARP packets, not TCP SYN requests.
Thus, the pattern of repetitive SYNs to a single host and port, without handshakes completing, aligns best with a SYN flood, making A the most accurate conclusion.
A network engineer is reviewing Wireshark data to trace the initial HTTP request responsible for downloading the Ursnif banking Trojan. Which display filter was most likely used to isolate the triggering request?
A. http.request.uri matches
B. tls.handshake.type == 1
C. tcp.port eq 25
D. tcp.window_size == 0
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
This scenario involves analyzing captured traffic in Wireshark to trace a malware download, specifically the Ursnif banking Trojan, which is often delivered via HTTP in its early stages. In the exhibit, several packets are highlighted—most notably a group of HTTP GET requests, which are typical for retrieving files from a remote server.
One line in the capture clearly shows a GET request to the domain gjhantrk.com, with the path:
GET /edgrosln/solft.php?f=yourgh6.cab
This is a strong indicator of malware-related activity. The file requested (yourgh6.cab) follows naming conventions often used to disguise Trojan binaries. .cab files can be compressed archives used to store executable payloads.
To effectively isolate such packets in Wireshark, the engineer would use a display filter. The best filter in this context is:
http.request.uri matches
This filter allows the engineer to search for specific strings or patterns in the URI portion of HTTP requests. When paired with the matches keyword, it supports regex-based filtering, making it ideal for detecting strings like .cab, /solft.php, or any suspicious subdirectory structures.
Now let’s assess the incorrect choices:
B. tls.handshake.type == 1
This filter targets the TLS Client Hello messages, which initiate secure communication (typically for HTTPS). However, Ursnif is often distributed via unencrypted HTTP, and in this case, the payload request is made on port 80, not via TLS.
C. tcp.port eq 25
This would isolate traffic on SMTP port 25, used for email. While Ursnif may arrive through phishing emails, this capture is about HTTP download traffic, making this filter irrelevant here.
D. tcp.window_size == 0
This filter helps in diagnosing TCP flow control problems but has no bearing on identifying HTTP-based file transfers or Trojan downloads.
Therefore, to locate the malicious file request, the most logical filter is http.request.uri matches, making A the correct answer.
In a public cloud environment, which of the following presents the greatest challenge when collecting digital forensic evidence?
A. High costs charged by cloud providers for forensic support
B. The need to configure proper security zones and segmentation
C. Delays in obtaining evidence from cloud service providers
D. The risk of exposing other tenants’ data during evidence collection
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Digital forensics in public cloud environments presents unique complexities that differ significantly from those in traditional on-premises setups. One of the most critical concerns is multitenancy, a fundamental characteristic of public cloud platforms such as AWS, Microsoft Azure, and Google Cloud Platform. In a multitenant cloud architecture, multiple customers (tenants) share the same underlying physical resources—including compute, storage, and networking infrastructure.
When an organization attempts to gather forensic evidence in this context, investigators must ensure that their actions do not inadvertently access or expose data that belongs to other tenants. This is not only a technical concern but also a legal and regulatory one. Unauthorized access to another customer's data—even unintentionally—could result in violations of laws such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), depending on the jurisdictions involved.
Because of this risk, cloud service providers often restrict low-level access to hardware, storage, and logs. As a result, forensic teams may be limited in how independently they can perform evidence collection. Instead, they must often rely on the cloud provider to furnish the necessary data, which may introduce additional delays or limitations in how evidence is obtained, preserved, or analyzed.
Why the other options are less appropriate:
A. High costs: While using cloud services for forensics might involve certain expenses (like storage snapshots or data export fees), cost is typically not the primary concern. It’s secondary to data integrity, security, and privacy.
B. Configuration of security zones: This is more related to proactive security design and doesn’t directly impact the forensic process. Proper segmentation can help prevent attacks but doesn't resolve evidence collection issues.
C. Timeliness: Although delays in accessing evidence can be frustrating, they are often procedural and manageable. The risk of breaching another tenant’s privacy is a more serious and foundational concern.
In summary, multitenancy presents the greatest challenge in cloud forensics because it requires balancing the need for evidence with the obligation to protect the privacy and integrity of data belonging to other users of the same infrastructure. Ensuring this separation is maintained is crucial for compliance and legal defensibility.
What does the "transmogrify" technique in anti-forensics involve?
A. Embedding part of a malicious file in unused sections of another file
B. Transmitting malicious content over public networks using encapsulation
C. Hiding malicious files in places users wouldn’t typically check
D. Altering a malicious file’s header to make it appear as another file type
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The transmogrify technique in anti-forensics refers to the intentional modification of a file’s identifying characteristics—especially its file header—so that it appears to be a completely different and benign file type. This deception is primarily used to evade detection by forensic tools, antivirus software, or human analysts during incident response or digital investigations.
Files are typically identified by their file header (also known as a magic number), a sequence of bytes at the beginning of the file that signals its format. For example:
JPEG images begin with the bytes FF D8 FF.
PDF files start with %PDF.
Windows executables begin with MZ.
A threat actor using transmogrification may take a malicious executable (like a .exe file) and change its header to match that of a harmless file type, such as a JPEG or PDF. Although this doesn't change the underlying code or behavior of the file, it tricks systems that rely on header signatures into misclassifying it. This can be especially effective in automated forensics tools that use file headers for triaging large volumes of data.
In addition to changing headers, attackers often rename file extensions to further disguise the true nature of the file. For example, an executable might be renamed from malware.exe to invoice.jpg, misleading both users and basic filtering systems.
Why the other choices don’t fit:
A. Hiding data in unused file areas: This refers to slack space or data hiding, which is a different method used to conceal payloads within unused areas of a file or disk.
B. Network encapsulation: This describes tunneling or covert channels, often used for exfiltration, not disguising the nature of files on disk.
C. Hiding files in ordinary locations: This is a method more aligned with steganography or camouflage, where malicious files are stored in directories or places users are unlikely to check, such as system folders.
Transmogrification specifically manipulates file-level metadata to mask the file's identity. It's an advanced anti-forensic tactic that targets file identification mechanisms, making it harder for investigators to recognize and isolate malicious content. By disguising dangerous files as harmless ones, attackers can prolong their presence on a system and evade detection during routine scans or forensic examinations.
Which of the following best describes the steganography anti-forensics method?
A. Concealing parts of a malicious file in unused storage space
B. Modifying a file’s header to disguise its type
C. Transmitting harmful files across a public network using encapsulation
D. Hiding malicious data within innocent-looking files or locations
Correct Answer: D
Steganography is a stealthy anti-forensic technique used to embed malicious content within seemingly harmless files or digital objects, such that its presence is not easily detected. Its goal is not just to hide the data from human eyes, but also to evade discovery by security software like antivirus or intrusion detection systems (IDS). Unlike encryption, which disguises the content of the data, steganography masks the existence of data altogether.
Attackers may use steganography to embed payloads within media files such as:
Images (e.g., JPEG, PNG) – Here, data can be stored in the Least Significant Bits (LSBs) of pixel color values, which typically do not visibly alter the image.
Audio (e.g., MP3, WAV) – Malicious content may be injected into less noticeable frequencies.
Videos or document metadata – Attackers can hide information in unused fields or comment sections.
File directories – Hidden folders with misleading names may contain encoded or encrypted malicious files.
Because these host files appear legitimate and often pass basic validation checks, they can be distributed across systems or exfiltrated from networks without triggering alarms. Steganography is frequently used in Advanced Persistent Threats (APTs) to exfiltrate data covertly or to stage future attacks.
A. Refers to hiding code in slack space or unused sectors on a disk. While also a covert method, it is categorized under filesystem exploitation, not steganography.
B. Describes changing the file's signature or header (e.g., renaming a .exe to .jpg). This is known as transmogrification, and while it’s deceptive, it doesn’t involve hiding within another file.
C. Involves using network tunneling or encapsulation to transport malware or data in network protocols. This is related to covert channels, not file-based hiding.
Steganography is particularly dangerous because it can go undetected for long periods, especially in environments lacking proper content inspection tools. It is a powerful method to hide both payloads and communications within systems that appear normal.
A company’s security team identifies several suspicious files trying to access sensitive data on the organization’s file server. To analyze these files using sandboxing, which two tasks should a security analyst prioritize? (Select two.)
A. Review changes to the registry
B. Monitor all active processes
C. Compute and check the file’s hash
D. Verify the actual file format
E. Examine the Portable Executable (PE) header
Correct Answers: A and B
When a suspicious file attempts to access confidential data, it's essential to analyze its behavior in a sandbox environment. A sandbox allows the file to execute in isolation, enabling analysts to observe real-time behavior without risk to production systems. The aim is to determine whether the file acts maliciously by modifying system settings, spawning unauthorized processes, or establishing network connections.
Two key dynamic analysis techniques within sandboxing are:
Registry keys are a common target for malware. Attackers often:
Create new keys to establish persistence (e.g., so malware runs at startup),
Modify keys to disable antivirus, firewalls, or security tools, or
Adjust system configurations to make detection harder.
Tracking any new or modified registry entries gives insight into how the file may compromise or persist within the system.
Another essential aspect of sandboxing is observing what processes the file spawns or manipulates. Malware can:
Launch hidden or child processes to perform unauthorized tasks,
Inject itself into trusted system processes (a technique called process hollowing),
Attempt privilege escalation, or
Open command and control connections.
By analyzing the process tree and system resource utilization, analysts can determine the scope of the file’s intent and threat level.
C. Inspecting File Hash
While useful for static analysis, computing a hash only helps match the file against known malware databases. It does not provide behavioral insights.
D. Checking the File Type
Determining whether the file extension aligns with its true format (e.g., .exe vs. .jpg) helps during initial triage but offers no behavioral data.
E. Reviewing the PE Header
Although useful in understanding compilation metadata or import functions, PE header inspection is also part of static analysis, not dynamic execution behavior.
For evaluating threats using sandboxing, analysts focus on real-time system-level effects, making registry monitoring and process observation the most critical indicators of potentially malicious behavior.
While reviewing DNS logs during a forensic investigation, a cybersecurity analyst notices repeated requests to a suspicious domain that has not been seen on the network before. Which of the following should be the analyst’s next step?
A. Perform a full malware scan on the source endpoint
B. Block the domain at the firewall and update the denylist
C. Perform passive DNS analysis to gather historical data on the domain
D. Quarantine the system and disable DNS resolution
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
When a cybersecurity analyst detects suspicious DNS activity—especially repeated requests to an unfamiliar domain—the appropriate next step is to perform passive DNS analysis to understand the history and behavior of that domain (Option C). Passive DNS, or pDNS, is a method that records DNS resolution data over time. This allows analysts to determine whether the domain has a known association with malicious infrastructure, such as being linked to malware command-and-control (C2) servers or phishing campaigns.
Option A, performing a full malware scan, may come later, but it is premature without additional context. It could consume time and resources unnecessarily if the domain turns out to be benign.
Option B, blocking the domain immediately, could disrupt operations or lead to alert fatigue if done without validation. While blocking may eventually be necessary, it must be based on evidence, which passive DNS helps establish.
Option D, quarantining the system, is also a more aggressive step suited for confirmed infections. If the domain is determined to be benign, this action could cause unnecessary downtime.
Passive DNS analysis lets the analyst:
See which IP addresses are tied to the domain
Check how long the domain has existed
Review whether the domain is associated with malicious actors
Correlate with threat intelligence sources
This intelligence-driven decision-making ensures that the response is appropriate to the risk level. Therefore, C is the most logical and effective initial step in the investigative process.
An analyst is reviewing NetFlow data and notices large data transfers from an internal server to an external IP address at 3:00 AM over TCP port 443. What is the BEST next step to investigate this suspicious behavior?
A. Initiate a full malware scan on the internal server
B. Review packet captures to inspect the encrypted traffic contents
C. Correlate NetFlow data with logs from DLP and endpoint monitoring tools
D. Immediately block the external IP at the firewall
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
This scenario describes a classic potential data exfiltration situation. The use of TCP port 443 (normally HTTPS) during off-hours, combined with large data transfers, is a red flag. However, before taking action, the analyst must correlate multiple sources of data to determine if this is indeed malicious or if there's a legitimate reason for the behavior.
Option C is the correct choice because it involves correlating the NetFlow logs with other security controls like:
DLP (Data Loss Prevention) systems, which can alert on unauthorized data movement
Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) tools, which can reveal if a process on the server initiated the connection or if a user action triggered it
This correlation approach follows the Cyber Kill Chain and incident response best practices by ensuring that any mitigation is grounded in verified intelligence. It prevents premature or potentially disruptive actions.
Option A, running a malware scan, is often useful, but it may not catch advanced persistent threats (APTs) or legitimate tools used in malicious ways.
Option B, inspecting encrypted packet contents, is not feasible without SSL/TLS decryption and certificate access. Moreover, most environments do not decrypt all HTTPS traffic for privacy and performance reasons.
Option D, blocking the external IP address immediately, may stop further data exfiltration—but also alerts the attacker that they’ve been detected, possibly causing them to use fallback methods. It’s a useful step, but it should be taken after confirmation of malicious activity.
In conclusion, C is the most prudent next step, enabling the analyst to build a stronger case before taking potentially disruptive actions.
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