ECCouncil 312-49 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

An investigator contacts a domain administrator by phone after identifying them through a Whois search. The investigator requests that all emails—both sent and received—associated with a particular user account be preserved. 

Which U.S. legal statute authorizes such a request and compels the service provider to retain the requested data?

A. Title 18, Section 1030
B. Title 18, Section 2703(d)
C. Title 18, Section Chapter 90
D. Title 18, Section 2703(f)

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

The correct statute that grants a legal foundation for investigators to request the preservation of digital communication records is Title 18, Section 2703(f) of the U.S. Code. This law is part of the Stored Communications Act (SCA), located within Chapter 121 of Title 18, and is designed to address issues related to electronic communication privacy and the storage of digital data by third-party service providers.

Section 2703(f) specifically outlines the government’s authority to compel a provider—such as an ISP, domain host, or email provider—to preserve records and content without needing a court order or subpoena at the time of the request. Upon receiving such a request, the provider is required to maintain the integrity of those records for a minimum of 90 days, with an option for the government to extend that period for an additional 90 days. This is often done by phone, email, or fax, and is typically the first step taken by investigators before they formally serve legal process such as subpoenas or warrants.

The purpose of this provision is to prevent the automatic deletion or alteration of crucial digital evidence while legal proceedings are initiated. Many service providers have data retention policies that could purge emails or logs after a short time. The 2703(f) preservation request acts as a temporary "hold" on those deletions, giving law enforcement the time needed to obtain the appropriate legal authority for full access.

Let’s review why the other choices are incorrect:

• A (Section 1030) refers to the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act, which deals with unauthorized access to protected systems, not preservation of electronic communication.

• B (Section 2703(d)) relates to court orders for obtaining non-content records (like IP logs or subscriber info) but requires judicial approval and is not intended for temporary preservation.

• C (Chapter 90) covers topics related to trade secrets and intellectual property protection, and has no relevance to the storage or preservation of ISP-related communication.

Only Section 2703(f) provides the legal mechanism for investigators to immediately request the preservation of data before formal legal process. This tool is especially critical in fast-moving investigations where digital evidence may otherwise be lost.

Question 2:

While assessing a client’s cybersecurity setup, you notice a dedicated computer referred to as a "sheepdip." 

Based on its function, what is the most accurate assumption regarding its purpose?

A. It manages a network of honeypots
B. It is another term for a honeypot system
C. It is used solely for scanning devices for viruses
D. It is designed to mitigate denial-of-service attacks

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

The term "sheepdip" has a unique origin in cybersecurity. It refers to a process—and by extension, a dedicated computer—that is used exclusively for scanning and inspecting storage media, devices, or files for malware before they are introduced into a production or secure network environment.

Much like the agricultural practice of dipping sheep in pesticide to remove parasites before allowing them back into a herd, a sheepdip computer serves as a quarantined environment to detect and eliminate malicious software. This process ensures that potentially compromised devices or files—such as USB drives, external hard disks, or newly acquired laptops—do not introduce viruses, Trojans, or other threats into a critical network infrastructure.

Option C correctly identifies this primary function. Sheepdip systems are intentionally isolated and configured with antivirus and malware detection tools. Organizations that handle classified, sensitive, or mission-critical data often rely on sheepdip systems as part of their standard security intake procedure.

Let’s analyze the incorrect options:

• A (Coordinates several honeypots): This describes a honeynet controller, not a sheepdip. A honeypot is a decoy system used to lure and study attackers, which is unrelated to the scanning role of a sheepdip machine.

• B (Another name for a honeypot): While both tools may exist in a cybersecurity toolkit, they serve completely different purposes. A honeypot attracts threats, while a sheepdip blocks them before entry.

• D (Defers denial-of-service attacks): A DoS mitigation system uses rate limiting, firewalls, and intrusion prevention techniques to absorb or deflect traffic floods. Sheepdip computers have no role in handling real-time network traffic or DoS scenarios.

In conclusion, a sheepdip system is a proactive malware defense mechanism that plays a vital role in endpoint hygiene. It allows security teams to verify that devices are clean before connecting them to sensitive environments. Given its role in virus-checking and infection prevention, the most accurate answer is C.

Question 3:

During a digital forensic investigation, what is the term used to describe the formal, documented record that tracks the movement and handling of evidence from its initial collection through to its final use in court?

A. rules of evidence
B. law of probability
C. chain of custody
D. policy of separation

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In the realm of computer forensics, maintaining the chain of custody is vital to ensuring that digital evidence remains intact, unaltered, and legally admissible throughout the investigation process. The chain of custody is a systematic documentation trail that records every interaction with the evidence, including who handled it, when, why, and how it was stored or transferred. This procedure applies from the moment the evidence is discovered until the time it is presented in court or the case is closed.

This concept is foundational to all types of forensic investigations, but it is particularly crucial in digital forensics because of how easily digital data can be copied, modified, or corrupted—intentionally or accidentally. A well-maintained chain of custody guarantees that the evidence presented is exactly the same as when it was originally collected, which is essential for preserving its integrity and authenticity.

The process begins at the point of evidence acquisition. For digital items, this might involve recording device serial numbers, generating hash values (such as MD5 or SHA-256), labeling storage media, and logging detailed transfer forms. Any subsequent actions—like imaging the data, creating forensic copies, or transporting the item—must be logged with exact timestamps and personnel information. The purpose of each action should also be described to establish transparency and accountability.

Failure to maintain a complete chain of custody can severely undermine an investigation. If there’s any break or gap in the documented history of evidence handling, it opens the door for the defense to claim potential tampering or mishandling, which may lead the court to reject the evidence altogether.

Now, here’s why the other choices are incorrect:

• A. rules of evidence refer broadly to the legal principles that determine what evidence is admissible in court. While related, they don’t refer to the specific tracking process of the evidence.

• B. law of probability is a concept from statistics and has no direct relevance to tracking or preserving evidence.

• D. policy of separation is not a standard term in digital forensics and doesn’t pertain to the handling or documentation of evidence.

In summary, the chain of custody is the definitive term that refers to the thorough and continuous documentation of digital evidence handling. It ensures legal defensibility and maintains the credibility of the investigation.

Question 4:

When verifying the integrity of a critical system file using the MD5 algorithm, how many characters are present in the resulting fixed-length checksum string?

A. 128
B. 64
C. 32
D. 16

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5) is a cryptographic hash function designed to produce a fixed-size output that uniquely represents a given input. While it has known vulnerabilities and is no longer recommended for secure cryptographic purposes, MD5 remains widely used for checksum verification and file integrity checks.

The MD5 algorithm generates a hash output of 128 bits. To understand the length of its string representation, it's important to distinguish between bits, bytes, and hexadecimal characters.

• 128 bits = 16 bytes (since 1 byte = 8 bits)

• Each byte is typically represented by 2 hexadecimal characters

• Therefore, 16 bytes × 2 characters = 32 hexadecimal characters
  This means the checksum is most commonly displayed as a 32-character hexadecimal string, using characters ranging from 0–9 and a–f. This format is used by tools like md5sum (Linux) or CertUtil (Windows), which are frequently used to verify whether two files are identical or if a file has been tampered with.

Let’s evaluate the other options:

• A. 128 – This refers to the number of bits, not characters. While technically correct in terms of raw hash size, it doesn’t answer the question about the string length.

• B. 64 – This matches the length of hash outputs from algorithms like SHA-256, which generate 256-bit hashes displayed in 64 hex characters—not MD5.

• D. 16 – This represents the byte length of the MD5 hash, but again, the question asks about character count, not byte count.

Despite its known weaknesses against collision attacks, MD5 is still functional for non-cryptographic uses such as file verification. For example, when distributing software, developers may include the expected MD5 checksum of a file so users can compare it to the one generated after download. If even one bit in the file changes, the resulting 32-character MD5 hash will be completely different, making it easy to detect tampering or corruption.

To conclude, when MD5 is used to generate a hash of a file, the result is a 128-bit (16-byte) output, most commonly displayed as a 32-character hexadecimal string. Hence, the correct answer is C.

Question 5:

While reviewing the HTML code of both archived and current versions of a website for your Computer Science thesis on web language evolution, you notice an unusual piece of embedded code in the modern site. 

What could this hidden element most likely represent?

A. Web bug
B. CGI code
C. Trojan.downloader
D. Blind bug

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In the realm of web development and digital forensics, especially when analyzing changes between older and more recent versions of a website, discovering a new and subtle element embedded in modern HTML often signals a web bug. Also referred to as a tracking pixel or web beacon, this type of code is designed to discreetly monitor user behavior.

A web bug is typically a 1x1 pixel transparent image embedded into a webpage or email. It is usually hosted remotely, and when a user accesses the page, their browser sends a request to the server hosting the image. This request, though invisible to the user, contains useful metadata such as the IP address, browser type, timestamp, and sometimes more detailed information via cookies or session tokens. This form of user tracking has become common in modern websites, especially for analytics, marketing, or behavioral targeting.

This type of element is unlikely to appear in older website code. During the early stages of web development, emphasis was on functionality and static content. There was little to no need—or capability—for silent user tracking. Thus, spotting such a tracking pixel in a modern version of a site reveals not only a technical change but also a cultural shift toward data collection and targeted user analysis.

Now let’s examine the other choices:

• B. CGI code refers to server-side scripting (e.g., .cgi files). This was common even in early web development for creating dynamic content and handling forms. It’s not abnormal or inherently hidden and would not appear as an unusual anomaly in modern code.

• C. Trojan.downloader is a malicious file designed to silently install additional malware. While dangerous, it would typically not appear as human-readable HTML or be visible during standard source code inspection.

• D. Blind bug is not a recognized term in cybersecurity, web development, or digital forensics. It is likely a distractor and has no defined role in tracking or page behavior.

Therefore, the web bug is the most logical and accurate explanation for the hidden code you encountered. It exemplifies the evolution of web development beyond just aesthetics or interactivity—extending into user analytics and privacy considerations.

Question 6:

While using the forensic tool DriveSpy, you’re tasked with copying 150 sectors starting from sector 1709 on the system’s main hard disk. 

Which of the following commands correctly performs this operation?

A. 0:1000, 150
B. 0:1709, 150
C. 1:1709, 150
D. 0:1709-1858

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

DriveSpy is a low-level forensic utility used by investigators to access and copy data from hard drives at the sector level. Its functionality is crucial for ensuring data integrity and chain-of-custody during digital investigations. To use DriveSpy effectively, it's important to understand its precise command syntax, especially when specifying sectors for data acquisition.

DriveSpy commands follow a specific structure:

<drive_number>:<starting_sector>, <number_of_sectors>

Let’s break down the components based on the given task:

• Drive Number: Physical hard drives are numbered starting at 0. So 0 refers to the primary hard drive, which is the one being accessed here.

• Starting Sector: You are instructed to begin copying from sector 1709. This number directly follows the colon after the drive number.

• Number of Sectors: You need to copy 150 sectors, which is specified after a comma.

So, the correct format for this operation is: 0:1709, 150.

Now, let’s analyze the incorrect options:

• A. 0:1000, 150 – This references the correct drive but starts from sector 1000, not 1709. Hence, it doesn’t meet the requirements.

• C. 1:1709, 150 – This starts at the correct sector but targets drive 1, which is the secondary hard disk, not the primary one.

• D. 0:1709-1858 – While mathematically accurate (1709 + 149 = 1858), this syntax is incorrect for DriveSpy. The tool doesn’t accept dash-based sector ranges. Instead, it requires the starting sector and the total number of sectors to copy.

In forensic operations, accuracy is paramount. Misusing syntax could mean copying the wrong data range, which might compromise the investigation or lead to inadmissible evidence. Tools like DriveSpy are powerful but require precise input, especially when working at such a granular level.

Thus, the only valid and properly formatted command to copy 150 sectors starting at sector 1709 from the primary hard drive is: 0:1709, 150, making Option B the correct answer.

Question 7:

A honeypot with IP address 172.16.1.108 was compromised. An analysis of the Snort binary log reveals communication between an attacker and the honeypot. Based solely on this log data,

Which specific malicious action can be conclusively identified as being performed by the attacker?

A. The attacker performed a network sweep targeting port 111
B. The attacker carried out a buffer overflow attack to compromise the system
C. The attacker used a Trojan through port 32773
D. The attacker successfully installed a backdoor

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

This question evaluates the ability to interpret intrusion detection system (IDS) data—in this case, a Snort log—to deduce the nature of an attack. The Snort log offers timestamped packet-level information reflecting the sequence of events between an attacker’s IP and the compromised honeypot.

The log shows three key packets:

1. TCP ACK Packet to Port 111
   A TCP ACK packet is sent without a preceding SYN packet to port 111, which is typically associated with the RPC portmapper. This behavior suggests stealth scanning or an attempt to map active services, which often precedes exploitation.

2. UDP Packet to Port 111
   A UDP request is sent to the same RPC service port. The purpose is likely to enumerate RPC services and discover open ports on which those services are running.

3. Large UDP Packet to Port 32773
   A large packet (over 1100 bytes) is sent to port 32773, which does not typically handle high-volume UDP traffic. This unusually large payload, combined with the context of earlier service probing, indicates that the attacker is attempting a buffer overflow exploit—a common tactic used to exploit vulnerable RPC services discovered during reconnaissance.

Now, let’s assess each option:

• A. Network sweep on port 111: A network sweep involves scanning multiple IP addresses. Since the log only shows traffic between one attacker IP and one honeypot, this cannot be inferred from the data provided.

• B. Buffer overflow exploit: This is the most valid conclusion. The attacker probes the RPC portmapper, gathers service information, and then sends an oversized UDP payload to a high-numbered port (32773), which aligns with known RPC buffer overflow exploits.

• C. Trojan activity: There is no indication of Trojan software in the log. No command-and-control behavior, reverse shell callbacks, or known Trojan signatures are observed.

• D. Backdoor installation: While this might be a result of successful exploitation, the log does not directly show any activity related to backdoor deployment or execution.

In summary, the sequence of reconnaissance followed by an unusually large payload is textbook evidence of a buffer overflow attack, especially targeting vulnerable RPC services. This is the only conclusion that can be definitively supported by the captured traffic.

Question 8:

Which operating system forms the core foundation of the current macOS (Macintosh operating system) architecture?

A. OS/2
B. BSD Unix
C. Linux
D. Microsoft Windows

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The modern macOS, known previously as Mac OS X and OS X, is architecturally built on a Unix-based foundation. Specifically, Apple developed macOS on top of an open-source operating system called Darwin, which integrates elements from both the Mach microkernel and the BSD (Berkeley Software Distribution) Unix operating system.

Key Components:

1. Darwin OS:
   Darwin serves as the core of macOS, and includes the XNU kernel—a hybrid that merges the Mach microkernel with BSD Unix components. This layer manages hardware interactions, file systems, memory, networking, and user-level commands.

2. BSD Influence:
   Many command-line tools, daemons, and utilities in macOS are directly derived from BSD Unix. For instance, commands like ps, top, ifconfig, and system behaviors such as permissions and process handling resemble traditional BSD systems.

3. POSIX Compliance:
   macOS adheres to POSIX (Portable Operating System Interface) standards, which makes it compatible with many Unix applications and allows developers to compile and run software developed for other Unix-like environments.
   
   

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

• A. OS/2:
  Developed jointly by IBM and Microsoft in the late 1980s, OS/2 was intended to succeed MS-DOS but has no technical relationship to macOS. It is completely unrelated in architecture and purpose.

• C. Linux:
  Though Linux is a Unix-like system, it is not derived from BSD. macOS and Linux share some similarities (e.g., CLI tools), but they have entirely different kernels. Apple chose BSD over Linux due to its permissive licensing and mature networking stack.

• D. Microsoft Windows:
  Windows uses a proprietary NT kernel and is built on a completely different codebase. It does not share a Unix-style architecture and is not POSIX-compliant by default.

Developer Experience:

macOS offers a native Terminal that supports shells like bash and zsh, as well as development tools such as gcc, clang, and make, all of which are rooted in BSD’s ecosystem. Additionally, macOS applications can integrate with Unix-based system calls, making it a preferred platform for developers who work across Unix and Linux systems.

The current macOS is based on BSD Unix through its Darwin core. It is not based on Linux, Windows, or OS/2. Therefore, the most accurate and factually supported answer is B. BSD Unix.

Question 9:

Before an attorney allows you to give testimony in court based on your specialized knowledge or experience, what must be done first to permit you to speak as an expert?

A. Manage any possible legal damage
B. Demonstrate that your forensic tools are flawless
C. Read your resume to the jury
D. Formally establish you as an expert witness

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In a legal setting, before an individual can testify as an expert witness, the attorney calling that person must first formally qualify them as such in front of the judge. This is not a casual or optional step—it’s a legal requirement to ensure the credibility and admissibility of expert testimony. The process is known as voir dire, where the court determines whether the person truly has the education, experience, and expertise to offer opinions that go beyond the understanding of an average juror.

During voir dire, the attorney presents the witness’s qualifications, such as professional certifications, academic background, work experience, publications, and involvement in previous cases. This establishes a foundation of expertise. The opposing counsel may cross-examine the proposed expert to challenge their suitability. Only after the judge accepts the individual as an expert can that person provide opinion-based testimony.

Now let’s evaluate the other options:

• A. "Engage in damage control" is not a legal or procedural requirement. While lawyers often plan strategies to mitigate potential weaknesses, this phrase does not refer to any part of the witness qualification process.

• B. While it’s important that forensic tools are reliable, no tool is perfect. The court doesn’t require perfection—what matters is that the tools are generally accepted in the forensic community (as per Daubert or Frye standards) and properly applied. This verification comes later during testimony or cross-examination, not before you're allowed to testify.

• C. A curriculum vitae (CV) is often submitted to the court, but it is not typically read aloud to the jury. Instead, the attorney highlights relevant portions while questioning the expert during voir dire. The full CV may be entered into the record, but reading it in court is neither required nor efficient.

In conclusion, the necessary first step before providing expert opinion in court is to be formally qualified as an expert witness by the court. Without this step, you may only testify to facts, not interpretations or conclusions drawn from your specialized knowledge.

Question 10:

You’ve been brought in as a computer forensics examiner by a regional bank that manages four storage area networks (SANs), each storing 30 TB of customer data. 

What is the most efficient method for collecting digital evidence from this environment?

A. Use DoubleSpace to create a compressed version of the file
B. Perform a sparse data copy targeting specific folders or files
C. Conduct a full bit-stream disk-to-image acquisition
D. Clone the disk using a bit-stream disk-to-disk method

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

When dealing with extremely large datasets—like four SANs totaling 120 TB—the priority in evidence collection becomes efficiency without compromising forensic integrity. In this case, efficiency means reducing time, storage requirements, and data redundancy while still maintaining evidentiary value. The most suitable method here is a sparse data copy, which involves acquiring only allocated, relevant files and folders instead of the entire disk.

Let’s break down the options:

• A. Using DoubleSpace, a disk compression tool from early MS-DOS systems, is entirely outdated and irrelevant for modern forensic work. It lacks any capability for forensic validation, such as cryptographic hashing or preservation of metadata, making it legally indefensible in court.

• C. A bit-stream disk-to-image acquisition captures every sector of the drive, including unallocated and slack space. This method is thorough and acceptable in court but extremely inefficient for large SAN environments. Imaging 120 TB would demand massive storage resources and significant time, much of which would be spent copying unused data. It's better suited for smaller, local drives or cases where deleted data is highly relevant.

• D. A bit-stream disk-to-disk copy is functionally similar to option C but copies the data directly to another physical disk rather than creating a digital image. This approach is even less efficient and less flexible than disk-to-image because it requires identical or larger disk space on dedicated hardware. Managing this for four large SANs is cost-prohibitive and logistically complex.

• B. A sparse data copy, also known as a logical acquisition, selectively extracts only the data of interest—such as customer records, transaction logs, or audit trails. Modern forensic tools like EnCase, FTK Imager, or X-Ways support this method while preserving metadata, applying hash checks for integrity, and generating chain-of-custody documentation. This method avoids unnecessary duplication of empty sectors or system files not relevant to the case, significantly reducing acquisition time and storage burden.

In a scenario where the primary concern is efficiency—without compromising on forensic standards—option B is the most practical. It strikes a balance between speed, precision, and admissibility.