ECCouncil 312-49v10 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Which section of the U.S. Code authorizes a government investigator to request—over the phone—a temporary preservation of user email records from an ISP or domain administrator, based on domain ownership details from a Whois lookup?

A. Title 18, Section 1030
B. Title 18, Section 2703(d)
C. Title 18, Chapter 90
D. Title 18, Section 2703(f)

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

When law enforcement or an investigator needs to ensure that potentially valuable electronic data is not deleted before a warrant or subpoena can be obtained, preservation requests serve as a critical legal mechanism. In the U.S., these are governed by the Stored Communications Act (SCA), part of Title 18 of the U.S. Code. The statute specifically addressing preservation—not collection or access—is Section 2703(f).

Here’s why this section applies:

Title 18, Section 2703(f) allows a governmental entity, such as a law enforcement officer, to formally request the preservation of electronic communication records from a service provider. This does not require immediate court approval. Importantly, the law permits these requests to be made orally—including by telephone—and the provider is then legally obligated to preserve the records for a minimum of 90 days, extendable by another 90 days upon request. This is particularly helpful during ongoing investigations when there’s a risk that evidence (such as emails or login logs) could be lost.

Now let’s assess the incorrect choices:

• A. Section 1030 deals with unauthorized access to computers under the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA). While often invoked in cybercrime cases, it does not provide mechanisms for preserving data or records.

• B. Section 2703(d) relates to court orders allowing access to certain communication metadata or subscriber information. However, it requires prior judicial approval, so it is not applicable for a quick, informal phone preservation request.

• C. Chapter 90 addresses trade secret protection and includes the Economic Espionage Act. This chapter is unrelated to ISP records or email preservation.

Therefore, when an investigator discovers a domain’s registration information via a Whois lookup and wants to prevent email records from being deleted, Section 2703(f) is the legally appropriate and effective statute. It allows informal preservation requests—such as via phone—without needing prior court intervention. This ensures critical data is safeguarded while the formal legal process continues.

Question 2:

While working at a client site, you encounter a system labeled as a "sheepdip" machine. What is the primary function of such a computer?

A. It manages multiple honeypots
B. It acts as a honeypot itself
C. It is used exclusively for malware scanning
D. It helps mitigate denial-of-service attacks

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The concept of a sheepdip computer originates from an agricultural term, where sheep are immersed in disinfectant before joining a healthy flock to prevent parasite spread. In cybersecurity, a sheepdip system plays a similar protective role—it is a dedicated computer used solely for scanning and inspecting potentially malicious files or devices before they are introduced to a secure network.

The main function of a sheepdip computer is virus and malware detection. It is usually isolated from production systems and equipped with up-to-date antivirus software, malware scanners, and other forensic tools. The idea is to analyze USB drives, external hard drives, CDs, or any media brought into the organization—particularly in air-gapped or high-security environments—to ensure that malware cannot enter sensitive networks.

Let’s explore the given choices:

• A. Managing honeypots: This is not a sheepdip function. A honeypot is a decoy system designed to attract and monitor attackers. Systems that coordinate multiple honeypots are typically part of a honeynet, not sheepdip stations.

• B. Acting as a honeypot: A sheepdip computer is not designed to lure attackers. Instead, it serves a defensive, preventive purpose by scanning files before they enter production systems.

• C. Malware scanning: This is the correct answer. The sheepdip station acts as a first line of defense against infections. Organizations often require all removable media to be scanned via the sheepdip before being allowed into operational use. This is particularly important for environments where security is paramount, such as:
  
  

• Military or intelligence networks

• Nuclear and energy sector systems

• Critical infrastructure (e.g., air traffic control, SCADA systems)

• Financial institutions handling sensitive data

• D. Denial-of-service attack defense: DoS mitigation requires network-level protections, such as rate-limiting, firewalls, or DDoS protection services. A sheepdip computer does not play any role in traffic filtering or denial-of-service mitigation.

In summary, a sheepdip system is exclusively designed for the safe inspection of external data or devices. It ensures files and hardware are free of malware before being introduced into mission-critical or sensitive systems, acting as a secure checkpoint. Hence, the correct answer is C.

Question 3:

During a site visit to a client's facility, you observe that they are using a sheepdip computer. Based on this observation, what is the primary role of this system?

A. A sheepdip manages multiple honeypots within a network
B. A sheepdip functions as a honeypot to attract attackers
C. A sheepdip is exclusively used for scanning and detecting viruses
D. A sheepdip system mitigates denial-of-service (DoS) attacks

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

A sheepdip computer is a specialized and isolated system designed specifically for scanning external storage devices—such as USB drives, DVDs, external hard disks, and SD cards—for viruses and other forms of malware before these media are connected to internal or secure networks. The term “sheepdip” originates from agricultural practices where sheep are dipped into disinfectant solutions to remove parasites before being introduced to the rest of the flock. This concept has been metaphorically extended to cybersecurity, where the goal is to “sanitize” foreign devices before they interact with production environments.

These machines are commonly used in high-security environments, such as military bases, financial institutions, critical infrastructure facilities, and air-gapped networks, where even a single instance of malware introduction could have severe consequences. Sheepdip systems are typically equipped with multiple antivirus engines, sandboxing tools, and malware analyzers, and are completely disconnected from internal systems to prevent any contamination.

Now, let’s evaluate each of the options:

• A. Incorrect. Coordinating honeypots is not the role of a sheepdip. A honeynet, not a sheepdip, may manage multiple honeypots designed to attract and analyze attacker behavior.

• B. Incorrect. Although both honeypots and sheepdip systems are security tools, they serve different functions. A honeypot is a decoy system intended to lure attackers and gather intelligence, while a sheepdip is used to prevent infection from removable media.

• C. Correct. The sole function of a sheepdip system is to scan removable media for malware before that media is allowed to interface with the internal network. This aligns perfectly with its preventive and inspection-focused purpose.

• D. Incorrect. DoS or DDoS attacks are mitigated using firewalls, load balancers, intrusion prevention systems (IPS), or rate-limiting rules. Sheepdip computers do not interact with network traffic and have no role in mitigating these types of attacks.

In summary, a sheepdip system is a proactive malware defense mechanism that acts as a checkpoint for external devices. It serves a critical security function by preventing infected or malicious content from being introduced into a secure computing environment.

Question 4:

During a digital forensic investigation, what is the correct term for the fully documented record that tracks how evidence is collected, handled, and stored from its discovery to its use in court?

A. Rules of evidence
B. Law of probability
C. Chain of custody
D. Policy of separation

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In the realm of computer forensics and legal investigations, the integrity of evidence is paramount. To ensure that evidence can be reliably presented in a court of law, it must be meticulously documented and preserved from the moment it is discovered. The term used to describe this documentation process is the chain of custody.

The chain of custody refers to the chronological record of every interaction with a piece of evidence—from collection, analysis, and storage, to its final use in legal proceedings. This log includes:

• Who collected the evidence

• When and where it was collected

• How it was transported or stored

• Who accessed or handled it during the investigation

This process is vital for ensuring the integrity and admissibility of evidence. If any step in the chain is poorly documented, mishandled, or unverified, the entire case can be undermined. Courts may rule the evidence inadmissible, suspecting tampering or loss of authenticity, regardless of its content.

Now, let’s assess each of the answer options:

• A. Rules of evidence:
  These are broad legal principles that define what types of evidence are allowed in court and how they should be presented. While important, they do not refer to the tracking or handling of evidence itself.

• B. Law of probability:
  This is a mathematical concept, not a forensic one. It may be used in the interpretation of data or statistical analysis, but it does not relate to evidence documentation or handling.

• C. Chain of custody:
  This is the correct term. It ensures that every handler of the evidence is accounted for and that the evidence is authentic, untampered, and legally admissible. It is a cornerstone of trustworthy forensic practice.

• D. Policy of separation:
  This is not a standard term in forensics. It might be interpreted as separation of duties or network segmentation, but it has no relevance to the tracking of forensic evidence.

In conclusion, maintaining a complete chain of custody ensures that digital or physical evidence can withstand legal scrutiny, making C the correct answer. It is a non-negotiable standard in any forensic or legal investigation.

Question 5:

When the MD5 hashing algorithm is applied to a critical system file, how many characters does the resulting checksum contain in its standard hexadecimal format?

A. 128
B. 64
C. 32
D. 16

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The MD5 algorithm is widely used to verify data integrity by generating a fixed-length checksum for any given input. Regardless of the input size—whether a few bytes or gigabytes of data—the MD5 algorithm always produces a consistent-length result.

Let’s walk through what this output actually looks like and why the correct answer is 32 characters.

At the binary level, MD5 generates a 128-bit hash value. Since there are 8 bits in a byte, this equates to 16 bytes. However, the way this information is typically presented is not in raw bytes or bits, but in hexadecimal format, which is far more readable and standard in systems like digital forensics, software version control, and security auditing.

Now, each hexadecimal character represents 4 bits. So, to convert a 128-bit result into hexadecimal:

• 128 bits ÷ 4 bits per hex character = 32 hexadecimal characters

This means the output most commonly seen in logs or integrity checks is a 32-character hexadecimal string. For example, the MD5 hash for the word "admin" is:

As you can count, that’s exactly 32 characters long.

Let’s clarify the confusion around other options:

• Option A (128): This refers to the number of bits, not characters.

• Option B (64): This is the typical character length for SHA-256, which produces a 256-bit output, not MD5.

• Option D (16): This refers to the number of bytes in the raw binary output. While technically correct at the byte level, it's not the format typically seen or referred to when people discuss MD5 checksums in everyday use (e.g., on websites or in integrity check logs).

Therefore, when you are asked how many characters an MD5 checksum has, and the context refers to displayed or commonly used format, the accurate answer is 32 hexadecimal characters.

Question 6:

While analyzing the current HTML source code of a website as part of your doctoral research, you come across an unusual snippet embedded in the modern version that wasn’t present in the older archived version. 

What is this suspicious addition most likely to be?

A. Web bug
B. CGI code
C. Trojan.downloader
D. Blind bug

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

This scenario focuses on detecting an unfamiliar element in a modern website’s HTML that raises concerns during academic source code analysis. Among the options given, the most appropriate and technically valid answer is A: Web bug.

A web bug, also known as a tracking pixel or web beacon, is a very small (often 1x1 pixel), usually invisible element embedded in a web page or email. Its sole purpose is to silently track user behavior—for example, recording that a page was viewed, what IP address accessed it, the browser used, and whether cookies are enabled.

Here’s how a web bug typically works:

• It loads from an external server.

• When it loads, it silently notifies that server about the visit or interaction.

• Because it's often transparent or hidden via CSS, it can go unnoticed in the rendered page, but would be visible in the HTML code.

Now, let’s examine why the other options are incorrect:

• Option B (CGI code): CGI (Common Gateway Interface) is a scripting standard for web servers to execute external programs. While sometimes dated, it’s not considered abnormal in HTML and wouldn’t raise suspicion just by its presence.

• Option C (Trojan.downloader): This refers to malware, typically binary or obfuscated script files designed to download further malicious payloads. A careful HTML code review might not immediately reveal such threats unless the site is actively compromised. Even then, identifying a Trojan from HTML alone without advanced malware analysis would be difficult.

• Option D (Blind bug): This term doesn’t refer to any recognized HTML or security concept. It may be a misnomer or a confusion with “blind SQL injection,” which is a different class of attack and would not appear directly in static HTML.

In contrast, a web bug would stand out to a technical researcher reviewing HTML, especially if it involves suspicious tracking behavior not present in older site versions. Since these are often added for analytics or tracking without user awareness, they can appear "abnormal" in the context of a scholarly investigation focused on code evolution and ethics.

Thus, the most accurate and relevant answer is A: Web bug.

Question 7:

When working with the forensic tool DriveSpy, which of the following commands accurately represents copying 150 sectors beginning at sector 1709 on the primary hard disk?

A. 0:1000, 150
B. 0:1709, 150
C. 1:1709, 150
D. 0:1709-1858

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

DriveSpy is a DOS-based command-line tool used in forensic investigations to examine and interact with storage devices at a raw sector level. It is part of AccessData’s Forensic Toolkit (FTK) and allows investigators to inspect disk contents and extract specific sectors using a defined command syntax.

To interpret the correct format for copying a block of sectors, you need to understand DriveSpy's structure for identifying drives and sectors. The syntax follows this general structure:

<drive number>:<starting sector>, <number of sectors to copy>

Let’s break down the task:

• You’re instructed to copy 150 sectors.

• The operation should start at sector 1709.

• It must target the primary hard drive, typically referenced by drive 0 in forensic tools.

Now, analyzing the options:

• Option A (0:1000, 150): This command indicates that 150 sectors should be copied starting from sector 1000, not 1709. Although the syntax is correct, the starting sector is wrong.

• Option B (0:1709, 150): This option is syntactically and logically correct. It specifies drive 0, starting at sector 1709, and copies 150 sectors—exactly what is required.

• Option C (1:1709, 150): The drive number here is 1, which typically refers to the secondary hard disk. While the sector count is accurate, the drive number does not match the instruction, making it invalid.

• Option D (0:1709-1858): This option seems intuitive because it implies a range of sectors (1709 to 1858), totaling 150 sectors. However, this is not valid syntax in DriveSpy. The tool does not accept range-based expressions; it needs the starting sector and number of sectors to copy, not the end sector.

Forensic professionals must be precise in syntax when using tools like DriveSpy. Any deviation, even if mathematically correct, could lead to errors in evidence acquisition or misinterpretation. Therefore, Option B is the correct and compliant format.

Question 8:

Given a Snort log showing traffic to a honeypot at IP address 172.16.1.108, what conclusion can you draw strictly from the data presented in the log?

A. The attacker conducted a port 111 sweep across the network
B. The attacker exploited the system using a buffer overflow
C. The attacker used a Trojan that communicates on port 32773
D. The attacker successfully installed a backdoor

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In this scenario, the question revolves around interpreting a Snort binary log to determine the attacker’s observed activity, but only based on explicit evidence presented in the log—not speculation or assumption.

The packet data shows interactions between an external IP address (e.g., 211.185.125.124) and multiple internal IPs (172.16.1.108 and 172.16.1.103), specifically targeting port 111, which is commonly used by SunRPC services.

Here’s what the log explicitly shows:

1. A TCP packet is sent from the attacker to 172.16.1.108:111.

2. A UDP packet is then sent from the same source to 172.16.1.103:111.

3. Another UDP packet follows to 172.16.1.103:32773.

By observing multiple packets sent to port 111 on different IP addresses, it's clear the attacker is probing multiple machines on the same port, which fits the definition of a network sweep—a common reconnaissance technique where an attacker checks for a specific service across many hosts.

Let’s evaluate the options:

• A. The attacker conducted a port 111 sweep across the network:
  This is supported directly by the evidence. Multiple hosts are contacted on the same port (111), using different transport protocols. This clearly constitutes a targeted sweep, likely seeking vulnerable SunRPC services.

• B. The attacker exploited the system using a buffer overflow:
  This cannot be confirmed from the logs. While one packet sent to port 32773 has a large data payload, there’s no evidence of shellcode, stack manipulation, or system response indicating a successful buffer overflow.

• C. The attacker used a Trojan on port 32773:

• Although port 32773 is sometimes associated with suspicious activity, there’s no explicit signature or behavior in the log that confirms the use of a Trojan. Without payload analysis or a reverse shell, this is speculative.

• D. The attacker installed a backdoor:
  This implies successful exploitation and post-exploitation activity, none of which is observable in the provided data. There’s no sign of persistent access or file transfers.

In conclusion, only Option A—a network sweep targeting port 111—is directly supported by the Snort log data. All other choices infer more than what the data shows and are therefore invalid under the constraints of this question.

Question 9:

What underlying system architecture serves as the basis for Apple’s modern macOS operating system?

A. OS/2
B. BSD Unix
C. Linux
D. Microsoft Windows

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Apple’s current desktop operating system, macOS, has its roots in BSD Unix, which provides a robust and reliable foundation for both system-level functionality and modern graphical user experiences. This shift towards a Unix-based architecture began in earnest with the launch of Mac OS X in 2001. Prior to that, the earlier versions of Mac OS (now referred to as “Classic”) were based on an entirely different and more limited proprietary structure.

When Apple introduced Mac OS X, it was built upon a core known as Darwin—an open-source operating system that combines elements of the Mach microkernel and BSD Unix components. Darwin provides critical system services such as memory management, networking, and file system operations. The inclusion of BSD Unix ensures POSIX compliance, enabling compatibility with a wide variety of Unix and Linux tools, making macOS particularly attractive to developers, researchers, and IT professionals who require command-line access and scripting capability.

Let’s evaluate the options:

• Option A: OS/2
  This was a joint effort by IBM and Microsoft in the 1980s, but it never became mainstream and is unrelated to Apple’s operating system architecture. OS/2 had its own kernel and design philosophy and does not contribute to any part of macOS.

• Option B: BSD Unix
  This is the correct answer. The Berkeley Software Distribution (BSD) is a derivative of the original UNIX operating system, and its components are central to Darwin, the foundation of macOS. This includes subsystems like networking stacks, command-line tools, and system utilities. BSD's reputation for reliability and security has been a major advantage for Apple.

• Option C: Linux
  While Linux and macOS share many Unix-like characteristics and tools, macOS does not use the Linux kernel. Linux is based on a monolithic kernel developed by Linus Torvalds, whereas macOS uses XNU, which blends Mach and BSD.

• Option D: Microsoft Windows
  This is a proprietary operating system created by Microsoft with no architectural relationship to macOS. The kernel, APIs, and system design of Windows are entirely different.

In summary, macOS is grounded in BSD Unix through the Darwin core, which ensures modern macOS systems remain stable, secure, and developer-friendly.

Question 10:

Before an individual can present expert forensic testimony in court, what procedural action must the attorney undertake first?

A. Begin damage control
B. Prove the tools used were flawless
C. Read the CV to the jury
D. Qualify the person as an expert witness

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In legal contexts, especially in cases involving digital forensics, cybersecurity, or other technical subjects, expert witnesses play an essential role by helping the court understand complex evidence. However, before someone can be allowed to give expert testimony, a formal qualification process must take place.

This process, known as qualifying the expert witness, is the legal method by which an attorney seeks to establish the witness’s credibility and authority in a specialized field. Only after this qualification can the individual present opinions and analyses—something fact witnesses are not permitted to do.

Here is a breakdown of the answer options:

• Option A: Engage in damage control
  This term refers to efforts made to minimize or recover from negative developments, such as a weak testimony or evidentiary mishap. It is not a formal legal step nor is it part of the process to allow someone to testify. Therefore, this option is irrelevant to the question.

• Option B: Prove the tools you used are perfect
  Courts do not require perfection from forensic tools. Rather, tools must be considered reliable and generally accepted in the professional community. The validity of tools may be challenged during cross-examination, but that happens after an individual has already been qualified to testify. So, this is not a prerequisite for testifying.

• Option C: Read your CV to the jury
  While your curriculum vitae (CV) is part of the qualification process and is submitted to the court to support your expertise, reading it aloud to the jury is neither standard procedure nor sufficient to gain expert status.

• Option D: Qualify you as an expert witness
  This is the correct and necessary legal step. During this process, the attorney presents your educational background, professional certifications, experience, and other credentials to the court. The opposing counsel may challenge your qualifications. After evaluating the presented evidence, the judge decides whether to officially recognize you as an expert in the relevant domain.

This designation is vital because expert witnesses are allowed to offer opinion-based testimony derived from their specialized knowledge—something ordinary witnesses cannot do. In digital forensic cases, for example, being able to interpret metadata, file signatures, or system logs requires recognized expertise.

In conclusion, before you can provide expert analysis in court, the attorney must first formally request that the judge qualify you as an expert witness.