ECCouncil 312-50v12 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Which encryption method uses 64-bit data blocks and applies three separate 56-bit keys during its encryption process?

A. IDEA
B. Triple Data Encryption Standard
C. AES
D. MD5 encryption algorithm

Answer: B

Explanation:

The encryption algorithm described is the Triple Data Encryption Standard, commonly known as 3DES. It builds upon the original DES (Data Encryption Standard), which encrypts data in 64-bit blocks. The key characteristic that distinguishes 3DES from DES is its use of three separate keys, each 56 bits long, effectively extending the key length to 168 bits. This triple-key approach significantly increases the encryption strength compared to single DES.

3DES operates by encrypting the data three times: first with the first key, then decrypting with the second key, and finally encrypting again with the third key. This sequence is called the encryption-decryption-encryption (EDE) method. The process enhances security by making brute-force attacks much harder than against the original DES.

Other options don’t align with this description. IDEA (International Data Encryption Algorithm) uses a 128-bit key and also processes 64-bit blocks but does not utilize three keys in sequence like 3DES. AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) differs fundamentally, operating on 128-bit data blocks and supporting key sizes of 128, 192, or 256 bits, so it doesn’t fit the 64-bit block size or the triple 56-bit key criteria. MD5 is not an encryption algorithm but a cryptographic hash function, which means it generates a fixed-size hash from input data but does not use keys or encryption techniques.

In summary, the triple application of DES with three 56-bit keys on 64-bit blocks directly identifies the algorithm as Triple DES, making B the correct answer.

Question 2:

Based on the injection attempt logged in the web-application firewall, what type of attack is John analyzing?

A. SQL injection
B. Buffer overflow
C. CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery)
D. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

Answer: D

Explanation:

The attack John is investigating is a Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attack. XSS is a web security vulnerability where an attacker injects malicious scripts, typically JavaScript, into a trusted website or application. These scripts execute in the victim’s browser within the security context of the trusted site, which allows the attacker to steal sensitive information like cookies, session tokens, or even manipulate the content displayed to the user.

The distinguishing feature of XSS is the injection of executable code into web pages viewed by other users. This could be through input fields, URLs, or other areas where user input is not properly sanitized or escaped. When the victim’s browser runs this malicious script, it enables the attacker to hijack sessions, redirect users, or capture keystrokes.

The other options represent different types of attacks that don’t match the symptoms here. SQL injection (Option A) involves injecting malicious SQL queries into a database via input fields, targeting the backend database rather than injecting scripts into web pages. Buffer overflow (Option B) is a memory corruption exploit aiming to overwrite program data or execute arbitrary code, usually targeting system software rather than web scripts. CSRF (Option C) tricks authenticated users into executing unwanted actions on a web application without their consent, but it does not involve injecting scripts like XSS.

Therefore, based on the context of injecting scripts seen in the firewall logs, D. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) is the correct classification for the attack John is examining.

Question 3:

What type of cyberattack did John carry out when he accessed the network unauthorized, stayed hidden for a long time, and extracted sensitive data without causing direct damage?

A. Insider threat
B. Diversion theft
C. Spear-phishing
D. Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)

Answer: D

Explanation:

John’s actions correspond to what is known as an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT). APTs are sophisticated, targeted cyberattacks where the attacker gains unauthorized access to a network and maintains a stealthy presence over an extended period. The goal is typically espionage or data theft rather than immediate destruction or disruption. Attackers behind APTs carefully avoid detection by using advanced techniques to remain hidden, continuously gathering sensitive information without alerting the organization.

This contrasts with other attack types. An insider threat (Option A) involves a malicious or careless individual within the organization who abuses their access, whereas John is described as an external attacker. Diversion theft (Option B) generally refers to physical theft or distraction tactics aimed at stealing valuables, which is unrelated to prolonged cyber intrusions. Spear-phishing (Option C) is a method often used as an initial attack vector, where attackers send targeted emails to trick users into revealing credentials or installing malware, but it doesn’t describe the long-term, stealthy behavior.

APT attacks are dangerous because they are persistent and carefully planned. Attackers often use zero-day exploits, social engineering, and other advanced methods to establish a foothold and escalate privileges. Once inside, they stealthily collect data, monitor communications, or exfiltrate intellectual property without raising alarms. Detecting and mitigating APTs requires continuous monitoring, threat intelligence, and robust security controls.

Given these facts, the correct answer describing John’s sophisticated, long-term intrusion is D. Advanced Persistent Threat.

Question 4:

Which Nmap command will perform a scan of common ports while minimizing network noise to help evade detection by intrusion detection systems (IDS)?

A. nmap -A -Pn
B. nmap -sP -p-65535 -T5
C. nmap -sT -O -T0
D. nmap -A --host-timeout 99 -T1

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

The goal is to select an Nmap command that scans common ports but generates the least amount of detectable network traffic, reducing the chance of triggering intrusion detection systems (IDS). Option C achieves this by combining a TCP connect scan (-sT) with OS detection (-O) while setting the scan speed to the slowest level (-T0).

Let’s analyze why C is the best choice:

• The -sT flag tells Nmap to perform a TCP connect scan, which completes the three-way handshake normally instead of sending raw packets. Although it is less stealthy than SYN scans, it is less suspicious than more aggressive scans.

• The -O option attempts to identify the target’s operating system by analyzing responses, which is useful for gathering intelligence but can still be done cautiously with slow timing.

• The -T0 timing template instructs Nmap to run at the slowest speed possible. This drastically reduces the rate at which packets are sent, minimizing noise and making it harder for IDS to detect suspicious activity.

Comparing with other options:

• A uses the -A aggressive scan option, which enables OS detection, version scanning, script scanning, and traceroute. This generates a lot of traffic and is easily detected. The -Pn disables host discovery, potentially wasting time scanning non-existent hosts, increasing noise.

• B combines a ping scan with scanning all 65535 ports at the fastest speed (-T5). This generates excessive traffic quickly and will almost certainly trigger IDS alerts.

• D also uses the aggressive -A flag with a slow timing (-T1), but it’s still more intrusive than necessary, as the aggressive scan produces more traffic than needed.

Therefore, C is the optimal choice for stealthily scanning common ports while reducing the chance of detection by IDS.

Question 5:

Which wireless security protocol ensures at least 192-bit cryptographic strength and uses advanced cryptographic mechanisms such as GCMP-256, HMAC-SHA384, and ECDSA with a 384-bit elliptic curve for protecting sensitive data?

A. WPA3-Personal
B. WPA3-Enterprise
C. WPA2-Enterprise
D. WPA2-Personal

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

The protocol that meets the requirement of a minimum 192-bit security level and supports advanced cryptographic tools like GCMP-256 (Galois/Counter Mode Protocol with 256-bit keys), HMAC-SHA384 (a secure message authentication code), and ECDSA (Elliptic Curve Digital Signature Algorithm) with a 384-bit elliptic curve is WPA3-Enterprise.

Here’s why:

• WPA3-Enterprise is designed for enterprise-grade wireless networks that require the highest level of security. It mandates support for 192-bit security suite protocols as defined by the Wi-Fi Alliance’s Enhanced Open and Enterprise security standards. This includes cryptographic algorithms such as GCMP-256 for encryption, HMAC-SHA384 for message integrity, and ECDSA using a 384-bit elliptic curve for authentication, providing robust protection against eavesdropping and unauthorized access.

• In contrast, WPA3-Personal is focused on personal and home networks. While it improves upon WPA2 by offering stronger encryption (such as Simultaneous Authentication of Equals - SAE), it does not enforce the 192-bit security suite or these advanced cryptographic protocols.

• Both WPA2-Enterprise and WPA2-Personal are older standards that use weaker cryptographic algorithms and do not support the 192-bit suite. WPA2 typically relies on AES-CCMP with 128-bit keys and does not incorporate the advanced mechanisms listed.

• The advanced cryptographic tools in WPA3-Enterprise significantly increase protection against sophisticated attacks, especially in environments where sensitive data must be safeguarded, such as government, healthcare, or financial sectors.

Therefore, WPA3-Enterprise is the correct answer, providing the highest security level with modern cryptographic standards designed for enterprise networks.

Question 6:

Which file commonly found on web servers, if misconfigured, can expose detailed error messages that provide attackers with valuable information about the system?

A. httpd.conf
B. administration.config
C. php.ini
D. idq.dll

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

Among the listed files, php.ini is the configuration file for the PHP interpreter and can directly affect the visibility of error messages on a web server. If this file is misconfigured, it may display verbose error messages that reveal sensitive information useful for attackers.

Here is a detailed review of the options:

• httpd.conf is the main configuration file for the Apache HTTP Server. While improper settings here can cause security vulnerabilities—such as directory listing or permission issues—it doesn’t directly control error message verbosity. It primarily manages server directives, virtual hosts, and modules.
  
  

• administration.config is not a standard or widely recognized web server configuration file. It might be application-specific, but it’s not generally involved in displaying detailed server errors.
  
  

• php.ini controls PHP runtime settings, including the crucial display_errors directive. If display_errors is enabled on a production server, detailed PHP error messages—including file paths, line numbers, variable values, and stack traces—can be shown to users. This information can reveal application logic, server paths, and code snippets, which attackers can exploit to find vulnerabilities such as SQL injection points, file inclusion flaws, or other weaknesses. Proper security practice requires disabling display_errors on live servers and instead logging errors privately.
  
  

• idq.dll is a dynamic link library associated with Microsoft IIS and does not typically expose verbose error messages by itself. It is more related to specific IIS components rather than PHP or general web application error handling.

Thus, php.ini is the correct choice because misconfiguration of this file can inadvertently expose critical debugging information that facilitates attacks. Properly securing this file and controlling error reporting is a key part of hardening PHP-based web servers.

Question 7:

Which tool does Gerard utilize to conduct DNS footprinting and collect detailed information about DNS servers and hosts within the target network?

A. Towelroot
B. Knative
C. zANTI
D. Bluto

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

In this scenario, Gerard uses zANTI to perform DNS footprinting and gather intelligence about the target network’s DNS infrastructure. zANTI is a comprehensive mobile penetration testing toolkit designed for Android devices. It provides security professionals and ethical hackers with various modules to scan, map, and assess networks for vulnerabilities.

One of the key capabilities of zANTI is DNS footprinting, which involves collecting information about DNS servers, identifying active hosts, extracting domain names, IP addresses, and DNS records like MX, A, NS, and TXT records. This information is crucial for understanding the network layout and can be leveraged to plan further penetration attempts, including DNS spoofing, cache poisoning, or targeted attacks on specific hosts.

Why the other options are incorrect:

• Towelroot is primarily a rooting tool for Android devices, designed to gain root access on certain smartphones. It does not offer network mapping or DNS footprinting functionality.

• Knative is a Kubernetes-based open-source platform designed to deploy and manage serverless workloads in cloud environments. It is unrelated to penetration testing or DNS reconnaissance.

• Bluto is not a recognized tool in the cybersecurity or penetration testing space related to DNS footprinting or network scanning.

Therefore, zANTI is the appropriate tool here because it specializes in network reconnaissance, including DNS footprinting, which allows Gerard to collect critical DNS-related data and identify potential vulnerabilities in the target network’s domain infrastructure.

Question 8:

Which tool from the list would be ineffective for cracking hashed passwords obtained after accessing a compromised system?

A. Hashcat
B. John the Ripper
C. THC-Hydra
D. netcat

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

After gaining unauthorized access to a target system, penetration testers often come across hashed passwords, which are cryptographic representations of the original passwords. To retrieve the actual passwords, they need to use specialized cracking tools that can reverse or guess the hashes. Among the options listed, the tools have different purposes:

• Hashcat is a highly regarded and powerful password-cracking tool that supports numerous hash types and algorithms. It leverages GPU acceleration, making it extremely efficient for cracking complex hashes quickly. It is widely used in penetration testing for hash cracking.

• John the Ripper is another popular password recovery tool, renowned for its ability to crack a wide variety of hash formats. It uses various cracking techniques, including dictionary, brute-force, and rule-based attacks, making it versatile and effective in retrieving plaintext passwords from hashes.

• THC-Hydra is primarily a network login cracker designed to perform brute-force and dictionary attacks against network services such as SSH, FTP, and HTTP authentication. Although it can guess passwords by targeting login services, it is not typically used to crack password hashes stored on disk.

• netcat is a general-purpose networking utility commonly used to establish TCP or UDP connections, create reverse shells, or transfer data between hosts. It does not possess any password cracking capabilities and is not intended for decrypting or reversing hashed passwords.

Because the goal here is to crack hashed passwords, tools like Hashcat and John the Ripper are suitable due to their specialized functionality. THC-Hydra can be useful in scenarios requiring password guessing over network services, but it is not designed for cracking hashes stored locally. Netcat, however, has no feature set that supports password cracking, making it ineffective for this specific task.

Hence, the correct answer is netcat, as it does not assist in cracking hashed passwords.

Question 9:

Which Google advanced search operator allows someone to discover websites that are closely related or similar to a particular target URL?

A [inurl:]
B [info:]
C [site:]
D [related:]

Answer: D

Explanation:

The correct choice is D because the [related:] operator in Google search is specifically designed to locate websites that share similarities with a given target URL. This operator is very useful for attackers or security professionals conducting reconnaissance, as it helps uncover other websites that may have comparable content, structure, or services to the original target. Identifying these related sites can expand an attacker’s footprint, revealing more potential targets or vulnerable systems linked by similarity.

Let’s analyze the other options to understand why they are less suitable:

• A. [inurl:] helps search for pages that contain specific keywords in their URL. While useful for narrowing down URLs containing particular terms, it does not help find other websites similar to the target.

• B. [info:] provides detailed information about a single URL, such as cached versions, related links, and snippets. However, it is focused on a single webpage’s metadata rather than identifying other related domains.

• C. [site:] restricts searches to a specific domain or site. It is effective for digging deep within one website but does not help locate external websites that are related or similar.

• D. [related:] stands out because it returns a list of websites that Google’s algorithms deem similar to the provided URL. This is exactly what an attacker might leverage for reconnaissance to find associated or similarly vulnerable targets.

In summary, the [related:] operator is uniquely suited for discovering a network of sites similar to a target, making it invaluable during early stages of cyber reconnaissance.

Question 10:

You are performing a penetration test on client XYZ. After gathering two employee email addresses from public sources, you proceed to create a client-side backdoor and plan to send it via email. 

At which phase of the cyber kill chain are you currently operating?

A Reconnaissance
B Weaponization
C Command and Control
D Exploitation

Answer: B

Explanation:

The scenario describes the step in the cyber kill chain known as Weaponization. The cyber kill chain is a model that outlines the stages of a cyberattack, from initial research to final objective achievement.

• Reconnaissance (A) is the stage where information about the target is gathered. This includes harvesting email addresses, domain names, or technical details. Since you have already collected employee emails, you have completed reconnaissance and moved beyond this phase.

• Weaponization (B) involves creating the malicious payload that will be used in the attack. In this case, the backdoor you are crafting is the weaponized component. Pairing this payload with a delivery mechanism—in this scenario, email—is the hallmark of this stage. You are transforming gathered intelligence into an active attack tool, ready to be delivered.

• Command and Control (C) happens after successful exploitation. It involves setting up channels for attackers to remotely manage or send commands to compromised systems. Since you have not yet sent or executed the payload, this phase has not started.

• Exploitation (D) is when the payload is delivered and executed on the victim’s system, exploiting a vulnerability to gain control or perform malicious actions. You are currently preparing the payload but have not reached this execution phase.

Therefore, since you are in the process of crafting and readying a malicious payload for delivery, your activities correspond to the Weaponization phase.