ECCouncil 312-50v13 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Which encryption algorithm processes data in 64-bit blocks and uses three separate 56-bit keys?

A. IDEA
B. Triple Data Encryption Standard
C. AES
D. MD5 encryption algorithm

Answer: B

Explanation:

The encryption algorithm described in the question is the Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES), also known as Triple DES. This algorithm is a symmetric key block cipher that processes data in fixed-size blocks of 64 bits and uses three separate keys, each of 56 bits in length. The primary reason 3DES was developed was to address the security weaknesses of the original Data Encryption Standard (DES).

Originally, DES was the standard encryption method, but it used a single 56-bit key. Over time, this key length was considered insufficient to protect against brute-force attacks, as computing power increased and attackers could attempt every possible key in a reasonable time frame. To enhance security without discarding the existing DES infrastructure, 3DES was introduced. It applies the DES cipher algorithm three times in succession, hence the name “Triple DES.”

The 3DES process involves three steps performed on each 64-bit data block: first, the block is encrypted with the first 56-bit key; second, the result is decrypted with the second 56-bit key; and third, it is encrypted again with the third 56-bit key. This sequence is commonly called EDE (Encrypt-Decrypt-Encrypt). This triple application effectively increases the key length to 168 bits (3 keys × 56 bits each), which significantly strengthens the encryption compared to single DES.

Although the effective security of 3DES is somewhat lower than the full 168 bits due to cryptographic vulnerabilities, it still offers much stronger protection than the original DES. This makes 3DES suitable for many legacy applications requiring enhanced security without redesigning existing systems.

Now, looking at the other options:

• IDEA (International Data Encryption Algorithm) also works on 64-bit blocks but uses a single 128-bit key, and does not use the three 56-bit keys described. It is a different algorithm with its own design and strengths.

• AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a modern symmetric encryption algorithm that operates on 128-bit blocks and uses key sizes of 128, 192, or 256 bits. AES does not involve triple encryption or 56-bit keys and is more efficient and secure than 3DES.

• MD5 is not an encryption algorithm but a cryptographic hash function. It produces a 128-bit hash value used primarily for data integrity verification, not for encrypting data blocks or using keys.

In summary, the algorithm that fits the description of processing 64-bit data blocks with three separate 56-bit keys is Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES), making option B the correct choice. Despite its gradual replacement by AES due to efficiency and security reasons, 3DES played a critical role in cryptography's evolution and remains relevant in certain legacy systems today.

Question 2:

John is reviewing web-application firewall logs and notices attempts to inject a suspicious script tagged as "image1." Considering this context, what type of cyberattack is most likely being attempted?

A. SQL injection
B. Buffer overflow
C. Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)
D. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The key to identifying the attack lies in the nature of the injected content labeled as "image1" and the fact that it involves script injection in a web environment. This strongly indicates a Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attack.

XSS is a widespread vulnerability where attackers inject malicious scripts—commonly JavaScript—into web pages that other users view. These scripts then execute within the victim’s browser, potentially stealing session cookies, redirecting users, or performing other harmful actions.

In many XSS attacks, attackers embed malicious JavaScript inside seemingly innocuous HTML elements, such as image tags (<img>). For example, an attacker may inject something like:

Here, the browser tries to load the image from a non-existent source "x." When that fails, the onerror event triggers, executing the JavaScript payload. This sneaky tactic allows malicious code to run without obvious signs and is often logged as suspicious script injections tied to image elements—matching what John observed as "image1."

Let's examine why the other options do not fit:

• A. SQL injection: This attack targets databases by inserting malicious SQL commands. It involves SQL keywords and statements, not HTML or image elements, so it’s unrelated to script injections via image tags.

• B. Buffer overflow: This is a memory corruption attack typically seen in native applications (like those written in C/C++). It involves exceeding buffer limits and overwriting memory, not injecting web scripts or HTML tags.

• C. CSRF: Cross-Site Request Forgery tricks a logged-in user into performing unintended actions but does not involve injecting malicious scripts into web page content or using image tags to execute code.

Given these points, the evidence strongly supports that the suspicious script injection related to an image tag is a classic example of XSS. This attack tries to execute unauthorized scripts by embedding them into the application's response, affecting any user who views the compromised page.

Question 3:

John, a skilled hacker, infiltrates a prominent organization's network and remains inside undetected for a long duration. During this time, he quietly collects confidential information without causing any obvious damage or interruptions. 

What category of attack best describes John’s actions?

A. Insider threat
B. Diversion theft
C. Spear-phishing sites
D. Advanced persistent threat

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The situation described clearly aligns with an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT). APTs are sophisticated, targeted cyberattacks where an attacker gains unauthorized access to a network and stays hidden for extended periods, often months or years. The attacker’s goal is to stealthily gather sensitive information without raising alarms or causing disruption, which matches John’s behavior perfectly.

APTs are usually carried out by well-funded and skilled adversaries, including nation-state actors or organized crime groups. They involve multiple phases: initial reconnaissance, infiltration (often via phishing or exploiting vulnerabilities), lateral movement within the network, data collection, and exfiltration—all while maintaining persistence and avoiding detection. The attacker’s patience and stealth distinguish APTs from other attack types.

The other options do not fit as well:

• Insider threat (A): This involves someone inside the organization—an employee or contractor—misusing their authorized access maliciously. Since John is an external hacker, this does not apply.

• Diversion theft (B): This is a physical logistics crime where shipments are misdirected or stolen during transit. It has no connection to cyber network intrusions.

• Spear-phishing sites (C): These are fake websites designed to trick specific individuals into revealing credentials or sensitive data. While spear-phishing can be a method for initial access, it does not describe the ongoing, covert presence John maintains inside the network.

In summary, John’s covert, long-term access and silent data collection clearly indicate an Advanced Persistent Threat. The hallmark of an APT is stealthy, strategic infiltration with a focus on intelligence gathering rather than immediate damage or theft. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

Question 4:

You want to perform a port scan on a web server using Nmap but aim to avoid detection by the network’s Intrusion Detection System (IDS) by minimizing scan noise. 

Which of the following Nmap commands is best suited to scan common ports stealthily?

A. nmap -A -Pn
B. nmap -sP -p-65535 -T5
C. nmap -sT -O -T0
D. nmap -A --host-timeout 99 -T1

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

When scanning a target system with Nmap while trying to evade detection by an IDS, the key is to minimize "noise"—the volume and pattern of packets that could trigger alerts. This involves selecting scan types and timing options that generate the least suspicious traffic and spread out probes to mimic normal network behavior.

Evaluating each option:

• Option A (nmap -A -Pn): The -A flag activates aggressive scanning, which includes OS detection, version detection, script scanning, and traceroute. This generates a lot of traffic and numerous probes, making it very noisy and easy for IDS to detect. The -Pn skips host discovery (ping), which can help stealth initially but doesn’t offset the noisiness of -A.

• Option B (nmap -sP -p-65535 -T5): The -sP (now -sn) is a ping scan that does not scan ports, so combining it with -p-65535 (all ports) is contradictory and incorrect. Additionally, -T5 is an aggressive timing option that sends probes rapidly, creating significant noise, thus unsuitable for stealth.

• Option C (nmap -sT -O -T0): This runs a TCP connect scan (-sT), which completes full TCP handshakes. Although -sT is less stealthy than SYN scans (-sS), pairing it with -T0 (Paranoid) greatly slows the scan, spacing probes over a long time to avoid detection by timing-based IDS. The -O enables OS detection, adding some noise, but not as much as aggressive scans. This combination makes the scan slow but highly stealthy, minimizing network footprints.

• Option D (nmap -A --host-timeout 99 -T1): Though -T1 slows the scan somewhat, the aggressive -A mode inherently produces many probes and noisy traffic. The --host-timeout 99 is too short to fully scan with low timing, causing incomplete results and does not help stealth.

In conclusion, Option C best balances functionality and stealth. The very slow timing (-T0) and standard TCP connect scanning reduce the chance of IDS detection by mimicking legitimate traffic patterns and avoiding bursts of network activity. Although slower, this option is ideal when avoiding detection is paramount.

Question 5:

Which wireless security protocol supports a minimum of 192-bit cryptographic strength and employs advanced encryption algorithms such as GCMP-256, HMAC-SHA384, and a 384-bit elliptic curve for ECDSA to safeguard sensitive data?

A. WPA3-Personal
B. WPA3-Enterprise
C. WPA2-Enterprise
D. WPA2-Personal

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The wireless security protocol described, which requires a minimum of 192-bit cryptographic strength along with sophisticated cryptographic tools like GCMP-256 (a high-strength encryption method), HMAC-SHA384 (an advanced hashing algorithm for message authentication), and ECDSA (Elliptic Curve Digital Signature Algorithm) with a 384-bit elliptic curve, corresponds specifically to WPA3-Enterprise.

WPA3-Enterprise is an enhanced security protocol designed primarily for enterprise and government environments where the protection of sensitive or classified information is crucial. This protocol includes a “192-bit security mode” that aligns with the Commercial National Security Algorithm (CNSA) suite, which is a set of cryptographic standards recommended for securing highly sensitive data. The 192-bit security mode provides a significant upgrade over previous wireless security standards by ensuring much stronger encryption and authentication capabilities.

To break down the cryptographic components:

• GCMP-256 ensures that data confidentiality is maintained with 256-bit key encryption, providing robust protection against decryption attempts.

• HMAC-SHA384 offers integrity and authentication checks with a 384-bit hash, making tampering or message forgery extremely difficult.

• ECDSA using a 384-bit elliptic curve adds strong digital signature capabilities, ensuring the authenticity of communicating parties and preventing spoofing.

By contrast, WPA3-Personal improves password-based security with Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) but does not implement the 192-bit cryptographic baseline or the advanced algorithms mentioned. WPA2-Enterprise and WPA2-Personal use older encryption standards such as AES-128 and do not meet the 192-bit security level or include the advanced cryptographic tools.

In summary, the protocol with the described high-level security features is WPA3-Enterprise, making option B the correct answer.

Question 6:

Which configuration files commonly found on web servers, if misconfigured, might reveal detailed information such as verbose error messages that could be exploited by attackers?

A. httpd.conf
B. administration.config
C. php.ini
D. idq.dll

Correct Answers: A and C

Explanation:

Web servers rely on various configuration files that govern their behavior, security settings, and how they handle requests and errors. When these files are not configured securely, they can unintentionally disclose sensitive details about the server environment, aiding attackers in identifying vulnerabilities. The two most common files that fit this description are httpd.conf and php.ini.

The httpd.conf file is the primary configuration file for the Apache HTTP Server, one of the most widely used web servers globally. This file controls critical aspects like directory permissions, module loading, and error handling behavior. If verbose error logging or directory listing is enabled here, the server may display detailed error messages that include internal file paths, software versions, or even code snippets. Such information can give attackers valuable clues about the server’s setup and potential security weaknesses. Improper directory listing, for example, could allow attackers to browse files that should be hidden.

The php.ini file controls settings for PHP, a popular server-side scripting language. One particularly risky setting is display_errors. If this is enabled in a production environment, PHP will show detailed error messages directly to users when something fails. These messages may expose sensitive information like database queries, server paths, or even credentials in some cases. Attackers can leverage this data to map the application’s internal structure and identify exploitable bugs. Best practices dictate turning off error display in live environments and logging errors instead.

On the other hand, administration.config is not a standard or commonly used file across typical web servers and is unlikely to reveal useful error information unless it is part of a specific application’s custom configuration. The idq.dll file relates to Microsoft IIS’s indexing service and is not a configuration file that controls error message verbosity.

Therefore, the critical files that can expose sensitive information through misconfiguration are httpd.conf and php.ini, making A and C the correct answers.

Question 7:

Which tool did Gerard utilize to conduct DNS footprinting and collect information related to DNS zones in the described scenario?

A. Towelroot
B. Knative
C. zANTI
D. Bluto

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In this scenario, Gerard is engaged in DNS footprinting—a reconnaissance technique used to gather detailed information about DNS servers, domain names, IP addresses, and related network data. This information is critical for attackers or security professionals to understand the target’s infrastructure and to plan further penetration testing or attacks.

The tool Gerard used needs to automate the collection of DNS zone data, DNS records, and network-related Whois information. Among the options listed, zANTI stands out as the tool designed specifically for such tasks. zANTI is a mobile penetration testing toolkit that offers a comprehensive suite of features to assess network security. It includes capabilities like DNS footprinting, scanning for vulnerabilities, network mapping, and gathering network information—making it well-suited for the task described.

The other options do not align with the requirements of DNS footprinting: Towelroot is an Android rooting tool designed to exploit vulnerabilities for root access, Knative is a Kubernetes-based platform focused on serverless computing and not security testing, and Bluto is a Bluetooth hacking tool with no DNS footprinting functions. None of these would effectively gather DNS zone data or perform network reconnaissance the way zANTI does.

Thus, the correct answer is zANTI, as it enables Gerard to perform automated DNS footprinting, making it an effective tool for collecting vital DNS-related information and supporting network vulnerability assessments.

Question 8:

Which of the following tools is not suitable for cracking hashed passwords?

A. Hashcat
B. John the Ripper
C. THC-Hydra
D. netcat

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Password cracking involves using specialized tools to recover plaintext passwords from their hashed versions. These tools generally apply techniques such as dictionary attacks, brute-force attacks, and hybrid methods to guess the original password by hashing potential candidates and comparing them to the target hash.

Hashcat is widely recognized as one of the most powerful password cracking tools available. It leverages GPU acceleration to speed up cracking processes, supports numerous hash types, and is optimized for performance, making it a favorite among penetration testers for cracking hashed passwords.

Similarly, John the Ripper is a well-established tool designed specifically for password cracking. It supports multiple hash algorithms and uses various attack modes, including dictionary and brute-force attacks, to efficiently uncover plaintext passwords from hashed inputs.

THC-Hydra, while a popular tool in penetration testing, primarily focuses on network login cracking by performing brute-force attacks against authentication protocols such as SSH, HTTP, FTP, and others. It is not specialized for directly cracking hashed password files but can be used to test password validity over network services.

Netcat, on the other hand, is a versatile network utility commonly described as the “Swiss Army knife” of networking. It is used for creating raw TCP or UDP connections, setting up reverse shells, and transferring files, but it does not contain any password cracking capabilities, especially not for hashed passwords.

Therefore, the only tool in the list not useful for cracking hashed passwords is netcat, making it the correct answer. It is designed for network communications, not cryptographic attacks on password hashes.

Question 9:

Which Google advanced search operator is used to discover websites that are similar to a specified target URL?

A. [inurl:]
B. [info:]
C. [site:]
D. [related:]

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Google’s advanced search operators provide powerful ways to refine search queries and extract very specific information. Among these, the operator that helps users find websites similar to a given target URL is [related:]. This operator returns a list of websites that share similarities with the specified URL in terms of content, structure, or theme. This is especially useful for reconnaissance activities where understanding the ecosystem around a target is important.

To clarify why the other operators are less suitable:

• [inurl:] focuses on locating web pages that include a specific word or phrase within their URL. Although useful for searching URLs with targeted keywords, it does not offer insight into websites related to or similar to a target URL. Its function is more about URL keyword matching rather than site similarity.

• [info:] is designed to provide information about a particular URL, such as cached versions, indexed status, or inbound links. This operator helps learn more about a single website but does not reveal other sites related to it. Its purpose is to gather data on a specific address, not explore related domains.

• [site:] confines the search results to a specific domain or website. For example, searching with [site:example.com] limits the results to pages within that domain only. While great for narrowing down searches, it does not identify other websites similar to the target.

In contrast, the [related:] operator is ideal for discovering a network of sites sharing commonalities with the target URL. Attackers or security researchers can leverage this to identify alternative targets or understand the competitive landscape. This makes D the best answer for gathering information on related websites.

Question 10:

At which phase of the cyber kill chain are you currently if you are preparing a malicious backdoor payload to send to victims?

A. Reconnaissance
B. Weaponization
C. Command and control
D. Exploitation

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The cyber kill chain breaks down a cyberattack into distinct phases, each describing a critical step in the attacker’s process to compromise a target. Understanding these stages is essential for both attackers and defenders.

• Reconnaissance (A): This is the initial phase where the attacker gathers information about the target, such as email addresses, usernames, or system details. It is purely about data collection and reconnaissance efforts. Since you have already collected the email addresses, this phase is complete.

• Weaponization (B): In this second phase, the attacker takes the intelligence gathered during reconnaissance and crafts a malicious payload—often malware, viruses, or backdoors—to use in the attack. Because you are actively preparing a backdoor payload to send to employees, this means you are currently weaponizing the attack. This phase focuses on creating the attack tools that will be delivered later.

• Command and control (C): This stage happens after the attacker successfully exploits the target system and establishes a remote control channel. The attacker can then issue commands and extract data. Since you are still preparing the backdoor and have not yet delivered or activated it, you have not reached this phase.

• Exploitation (D): Exploitation involves taking advantage of a vulnerability to execute the weaponized payload on the target system. It is the moment when the attack is triggered and gains initial access. Because your payload is still in preparation and not yet executed, you are not in exploitation yet.

In summary, since you are currently developing the malicious backdoor to use in the attack, you are clearly in the weaponization phase, making B the correct answer.