LPI 701-100 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Which two statements accurately describe features or characteristics of Jenkins?

A. Jenkins is only compatible with Java-based software.
B. Jenkins is capable of assigning tasks to remote agent nodes.
C. Jenkins cannot work with version control systems and only supports local file builds.
D. Jenkins relies heavily on plugins to extend its functionality.
E. Jenkins comes pre-packaged with its own built-in testing suites.

Correct Answers: B, D

Explanation:

Jenkins is a powerful and widely adopted open-source automation server used primarily to support continuous integration (CI) and continuous delivery (CD) pipelines. Its flexibility and extensibility allow it to integrate seamlessly into various development environments, making it a popular choice across many programming languages and project types.

Let’s analyze each option:

• A. Jenkins is only compatible with Java-based software – This is false. While Jenkins itself is written in Java, it is not limited to building or managing Java applications. Through its extensive plugin ecosystem, Jenkins can work with multiple programming languages such as Python, JavaScript, C#, Ruby, Go, and more. It integrates with tools like Maven, Gradle, npm, MSBuild, and others, making it language-agnostic.

• B. Jenkins is capable of assigning tasks to remote agent nodes – This is true. Jenkins uses a master-agent architecture (recently termed controller-agent) that allows the main Jenkins server (the controller) to delegate builds and other tasks to agent nodes. These agents can be located on different machines or platforms, enabling distributed builds, parallel execution, and more scalable and fault-tolerant CI/CD processes.

• C. Jenkins cannot work with version control systems and only supports local file builds – This is false. Jenkins has robust support for Source Code Management (SCM) systems, including Git, Subversion (SVN), Mercurial, and others. Jenkins jobs can be configured to automatically pull source code from remote repositories and trigger builds based on code changes or scheduled intervals.

• D. Jenkins relies heavily on plugins to extend its functionality – This is true. The real strength of Jenkins lies in its plugin architecture. The Jenkins community has developed thousands of plugins that support SCM integration, testing tools, deployment strategies, cloud services, notifications, metrics, and more. Jenkins itself provides only the core functionality; most advanced features are made possible through plugins.

• E. Jenkins comes pre-packaged with its own built-in testing suites – This is false. Jenkins does not include native test suites. Instead, it relies on external testing tools (like JUnit, TestNG, Selenium, etc.) and can run these tests through configured build jobs. Test results can be parsed and displayed using plugins, but Jenkins does not generate tests by itself.

Jenkins is a flexible, plugin-driven CI/CD automation server with strong support for distributed task execution. The correct statements are B and D.

Question 2:

Which three of the following statements correctly describe characteristics or behaviors of microservices architecture?

A. Microservices make it easy to change or replace individual functional components.
B. Microservices cannot be scaled horizontally since only one instance of each is allowed.
C. Integration testing is only possible once all microservices are fully implemented.
D. Communication between microservices can be slower than component interaction in a monolithic system.
E. Microservices within a single application can be individually updated and redeployed without impacting others.

Correct Answers: A, D, E

Explanation:

Microservices architecture is a design approach in which a large application is broken down into smaller, independent services, each focusing on a specific business capability. These services communicate over lightweight protocols (often HTTP or messaging systems) and can be developed, deployed, and scaled independently. This architecture contrasts with monolithic systems, where all functionality resides in a single, unified codebase.

Let’s review the options:

• A. Microservices make it easy to change or replace individual functional components – This is true. Because each microservice is isolated and self-contained, it can be refactored, rewritten, or replaced without affecting other services. This loose coupling enhances flexibility and agility, allowing development teams to use different technologies or evolve services independently.

• B. Microservices cannot be scaled horizontally since only one instance of each is allowed – This is false. Microservices are designed for scalability. Any service experiencing high demand can be scaled horizontally by deploying multiple instances. Load balancers or service meshes can then distribute requests among instances. This makes microservices highly scalable, often more so than monolithic applications.

• C. Integration testing is only possible once all microservices are fully implemented – This is false. Although integration testing in microservices is complex due to distributed components, it is still feasible before full implementation using mock services, contract testing, or service virtualization. This allows testing how services interact without requiring the full application to be complete.

• D. Communication between microservices can be slower than component interaction in a monolithic system – This is true. Microservices interact via network calls, which introduce latency, serialization overhead, and potential network failures. In contrast, monolithic applications often use in-memory method calls, which are significantly faster. As a result, performance tuning and proper design are critical in microservices.

• E. Microservices within a single application can be individually updated and redeployed without impacting others – This is true. One of the defining benefits of microservices is the ability to independently deploy and update services. This enables continuous deployment, reduces downtime, and improves system resilience during changes.

Microservices offer modularity, scalability, and deployment flexibility. The correct answers that reflect these characteristics are A, D, and E.

Question 3:

When performing a canary deployment of a new version of a service, which of the following statements about how the database is impacted are accurate? (Select two correct options)

A. Updating the database schema can be time-consuming and may degrade performance.
B. Adding a new service instance causes a major surge in database traffic.
C. The database schema must be compatible with all active service versions.
D. The database gets locked during replication to a separate canary environment.
E. Two identical, synchronized databases are required for canary deployments.

Correct Answers: A, C

Explanation:

Canary deployment is a release strategy where a new version of an application is deployed to a small subset of users or servers, allowing teams to monitor its performance before fully rolling it out. While this approach offers low-risk releases and rapid rollback, it introduces challenges when the application interacts with a shared database, especially regarding schema changes and backward compatibility.

Let’s explore the correct options first:

• A. Updating the database schema can be time-consuming and may degrade performance:
  This is true. Schema modifications—such as adding indexes, altering table structures, or applying constraints—can cause significant overhead on large production databases. These changes may introduce latency or resource contention, especially if made while both the legacy and canary versions are actively interacting with the database. Slow migrations or locking during schema changes can degrade system performance, making this a key concern during incremental deployments.

• C. The database schema must be compatible with all active service versions:
  This is also correct. During a canary deployment, both old and new versions of a service operate simultaneously and usually share the same database. Any schema updates introduced must therefore support both versions to prevent data access failures or inconsistencies. This principle is known as backward and forward compatibility. For example, rather than removing a column, it's safer to deprecate it and remove it in a later phase after the older version has been retired.

Now, for the incorrect options:

• B. Adding a new service instance causes a major surge in database traffic:
  This is misleading. A canary instance typically receives only a small portion of total traffic (e.g., 5–10%). This minimal load increase is usually well within the capacity limits of the database and does not significantly affect its performance.

• D. The database gets locked during replication to a separate canary environment:
  This is false. Canary deployments do not involve replicating the database. The same database is accessed by both service versions, and replication or locking is neither required nor common practice in this strategy.

• E. Two synchronized databases are required for canary deployments:
  Also incorrect. Unlike blue-green deployments, which may involve dual database environments, canary deployments are designed to run on a shared, single database, simplifying synchronization and avoiding the complexity of dual updates.

Canary deployments demand cautious handling of schema changes and strict schema compatibility across service versions. That’s why A and C are the correct answers.

Question 4:

Which syntax should be used inside the pipeline to correctly reference the value of TargetEnvironment?

A. {{TargetEnvironment}}
B. $TargetEnvironment
C. %TargetEnvironment%
D. ${params.TargetEnvironment}
E. $ENV{TargetEnvironment}

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In Jenkins declarative pipelines, parameters defined in the parameters block are automatically stored in a map called params. This map allows you to reference user input values or default parameter values throughout the pipeline in a structured and consistent way.

Let’s analyze how to correctly reference such a parameter and explain why D is the right choice:

D. ${params.TargetEnvironment}:
This is the correct and recommended syntax. Jenkins pipelines use Groovy, and Groovy supports string interpolation using ${}. When params.TargetEnvironment is enclosed in ${}, Jenkins will evaluate and substitute it with the actual parameter value (e.g., "staging"). This is the safest and most consistent method to access parameter values, especially within script blocks or steps like echo, sh, or bat.
Example usage:
steps {

  echo "Deploying to ${params.TargetEnvironment}"

}

Now, examining the incorrect options:

• A. {{TargetEnvironment}}:
  This syntax is invalid in Jenkins. Double curly braces are used in templating engines like Jinja2 (common in Ansible or Python-based tools), not in Jenkins pipelines or Groovy.

• B. $TargetEnvironment:
  While this might work inside certain shell steps (sh on Unix-like systems), it does not access the Jenkins parameter directly unless you’ve explicitly exported it as an environment variable. It’s unreliable for pipeline-level parameter access.

• C. %TargetEnvironment%:
  This format is valid only in Windows batch scripting (used inside bat steps). Even then, it assumes the variable has been declared in the batch environment—not as a Jenkins pipeline parameter.

• E. $ENV{TargetEnvironment}:
  This syntax doesn’t exist in Jenkins or Groovy. It resembles a mix of Bash and Perl environment variable formats but is not valid in Jenkins declarative pipelines.

In conclusion, to reliably access a parameter declared in the parameters block of a Jenkins pipeline, you must use the ${params.<ParameterName>} syntax. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

Question 5:

Which HTTP response header is officially recognized and used as part of Cross-Origin Resource Sharing (CORS) policy implementation?

A. X-CORS-Access-Token
B. Location
C. Referer
D. Authorization
E. Access-Control-Allow-Origin

Correct Answer: E

Explanation:

Cross-Origin Resource Sharing (CORS) is a browser security mechanism that enables controlled access to resources hosted on different origins. By default, the browser enforces a Same-Origin Policy, which blocks requests from one origin (domain, port, and protocol) to another unless explicitly permitted. To allow such cross-origin interactions, web servers must include specific HTTP headers in their responses—these are known as CORS headers.

Among the headers provided in the options, only Access-Control-Allow-Origin is a standard HTTP response header that is part of the CORS specification. It informs the browser whether the requested resource can be shared with a particular origin.

For example:

Access-Control-Allow-Origin: https://example.com

This means that only requests from https://example.com are allowed to access the resource. Alternatively, the wildcard:

Access-Control-Allow-Origin: *

permits requests from any origin. This header is mandatory in any server response that supports CORS.

Now let’s examine the incorrect options:

• A. X-CORS-Access-Token: This appears to be a fictional or custom-made header. While developers may define headers starting with "X-" for internal use, it is not part of the official CORS protocol and is not interpreted by browsers for enforcing CORS rules.

• B. Location: This is a valid HTTP header used in redirection (e.g., 302 Found) to indicate where the client should go next. However, it has nothing to do with CORS.
  
  

• C. Referer: This header is sent by browsers to indicate the origin of the request, typically for tracking or analytics. It does not control cross-origin permissions.
  
  

• D. Authorization: This header is used to pass credentials like Bearer tokens or Basic Auth. While it is sometimes used in CORS scenarios, it is not itself a CORS header. If used in a cross-origin request, the server must allow it by including it in the Access-Control-Allow-Headers list—but it doesn’t control origin access directly.

The only option that serves a direct role in enabling cross-origin resource sharing is Access-Control-Allow-Origin. It is part of the official W3C CORS specification and must be present in responses to permit cross-origin requests. All other headers listed are either unrelated or incorrectly assumed to be part of CORS.

Question 6:

Which two Git commands are specifically used for managing files—such as removing or renaming them—within a Git repository?

A. git rm
B. git cp
C. git mv
D. git move
E. git copy

Correct Answers: A, C

Explanation:

Git offers a wide variety of commands for version control tasks, ranging from committing changes and branching to file-level operations like removing or moving files within a repository. Two of the most commonly used Git commands for file management are:

• git rm
  This command is used to remove one or more files from the working directory and the staging area in one step. Once you run git rm filename, the file is deleted from your local file system, and Git stages this deletion for the next commit.

Example:

git rm old_config.yaml

git commit -m "Removed outdated config file"

This is extremely useful when refactoring, cleaning up old files, or organizing your project.

• git mv
  This command is used for moving or renaming files and directories. It works similarly to the Unix mv command, but it also updates Git’s internal index. Effectively, it’s a shorthand for running mv followed by git add and git rm.

Example:

git mv old_name.txt new_name.txt

git commit -m "Renamed file for clarity"

This allows Git to better preserve file history during renaming operations.

Incorrect Options:

• git cp: This is not a valid Git command. While cp is available in most shell environments for copying files, Git doesn’t provide a native git cp. If you want to copy files, you must do so manually and then run git add.

• git move: This is invalid. It’s a common mistake to think Git supports a git move command, but it doesn’t. The proper command is git mv.

• git copy: Like git cp, this is also not recognized by Git. File copying must be done outside Git using standard OS commands.

To manage file deletions or renames within a Git repository in a way that Git tracks, the correct tools are git rm and git mv. These ensure that changes are staged correctly and version-controlled, making A and C the only valid answers.

Question 7:

What are two key ways in which containerization impacts DevOps practices? (Select two options.)

A. Containers allow application packaging to be separated from the underlying infrastructure.
B. Containers demand developers have extensive knowledge of backend systems.
C. Containers enable developers to run tests in environments that resemble production.
D. Containers increase deployment complexity and necessitate early-stage deployment testing.
E. Containers must be specially tailored to each application and platform environment.

Correct Answers: A, C

Explanation:

Container virtualization is a revolutionary approach that supports many of the goals of DevOps, including rapid development, consistent testing, and seamless deployment. Containers package an application along with its dependencies into a lightweight, portable image that can run consistently across various environments—development, staging, and production.

Let’s analyze how each option relates to containerization and its effects on DevOps workflows:

• A. Containers allow application packaging to be separated from the underlying infrastructure:
  Correct. One of the most transformative benefits of containers is that they decouple the application and its environment. Developers can build and package applications into containers that include all necessary dependencies, without needing to worry about the underlying OS or hardware. This abstraction aligns with a core DevOps principle: develop once, run anywhere. It enhances portability, consistency, and automation in CI/CD pipelines.

• B. Containers demand developers have extensive knowledge of backend systems:
  Incorrect. One of the primary purposes of containers is to hide infrastructure complexity. Developers typically interact with tools like Docker or Kubernetes, which abstract away host-level configurations. They do not need deep knowledge of the underlying physical or virtual infrastructure, allowing them to focus on writing and testing code.

• C. Containers enable developers to run tests in environments that resemble production:
  Correct. Containers make it easy to replicate production environments locally or in staging. This consistency helps identify bugs earlier in the development process and reduces environment-related issues. Testing in a containerized environment eliminates the “it works on my machine” problem and promotes reliable, repeatable builds—critical in a DevOps setting.

• D. Containers increase deployment complexity and necessitate early-stage deployment testing:
  Incorrect. Containers are used specifically to simplify the software deployment process. They support automation and versioning, making rollbacks and updates easier. They don’t increase complexity; rather, they enable early and continuous testing as part of modern CI/CD workflows.

• E. Containers must be specially tailored to each application and platform environment:
  Incorrect. While each application may require a custom Dockerfile, containers are fundamentally platform-independent. They run the same way across development laptops, test servers, and cloud platforms, thanks to the container runtime.

In conclusion, containers simplify infrastructure concerns (A) and enable production-like testing environments (C)—both of which empower DevOps teams to deliver software faster and more reliably.

Question 8:

Which three of the following are standard HTTP methods commonly used in RESTful web services?

A. CREATE
B. REPLACE
C. PUT
D. DELETE
E. GET

Correct Answers: C, D, E

Explanation:

REST (Representational State Transfer) is an architectural pattern for designing networked applications. RESTful APIs use standard HTTP methods to perform operations on web resources, typically mapped to CRUD operations (Create, Read, Update, Delete).

Here’s a breakdown of the options and how they relate to REST:

• A. CREATE:
  Incorrect. Although creating resources is part of REST, “CREATE” is not a valid HTTP method. REST uses POST to create new resources. "CREATE" may describe the intent, but it's not a recognized HTTP verb in the specification.

• B. REPLACE:
  Incorrect. Like CREATE, "REPLACE" is not a valid HTTP method. The PUT method is used in REST to replace an existing resource or to create a resource at a specific URI if it doesn’t exist. “REPLACE” is a conceptual action but not part of the HTTP method set.

• C. PUT:
  Correct. PUT is a standard REST method used to update or create a resource at a known URI. It is idempotent, meaning that repeating the same PUT request will result in the same outcome. It’s used for full updates or overwriting resources.

• D. DELETE:
  Correct. DELETE is used to remove a resource identified by a URI. Like PUT, it is also idempotent. If you issue a DELETE request multiple times, the resource remains deleted after the first successful operation.

• E. GET:
  Correct. GET is the most frequently used method in REST and is used to retrieve information from the server. It’s a read-only operation and doesn’t modify the server’s state. GET requests are safe and cacheable.

Here’s a quick summary of valid HTTP methods used in RESTful APIs:

• GET: Retrieve a resource or list of resources (Read)

• POST: Create a new resource (Create)

• PUT: Update or replace a resource (Update)

• DELETE: Remove a resource (Delete)

• PATCH: Apply partial modifications to a resource (Update)

To conclude, only C (PUT), D (DELETE), and E (GET) are valid HTTP methods used in REST. A and B refer to actions that exist conceptually in RESTful APIs but are not defined in the HTTP standard.

Question 9:

Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of using Jenkins pipelines in a DevOps workflow?

A. Pipelines are used solely for automated security scans.
B. Pipelines allow developers to manually execute each step of a software release.
C. Pipelines automate the entire process from code commit to deployment.
D. Pipelines are used only to build Docker images in Jenkins.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Jenkins pipelines are a fundamental part of modern DevOps practices, especially when implementing Continuous Integration and Continuous Deployment (CI/CD). A Jenkins pipeline is a suite of plugins that support integrating and implementing continuous delivery pipelines using code. These pipelines define a series of automated steps that take a software application from the development phase through testing and deployment.

Option C is correct because Jenkins pipelines are designed to automate the entire process, including fetching code from version control systems (like Git), compiling it, running unit and integration tests, packaging the application, and finally deploying it to staging or production environments. This full automation reduces human error, accelerates software delivery, and ensures consistency across builds and deployments.

Option A is incorrect because while security scans can be integrated into a Jenkins pipeline, they are not the sole purpose. Security is just one stage that can be incorporated.

Option B is misleading because while manual intervention can be added at specific stages (e.g., manual approval gates), pipelines are intended to minimize manual effort and increase automation.

Option D is too narrow. While building Docker images can be a part of a Jenkins pipeline, pipelines serve a broader purpose than just image building.

In the context of the LPI 701-100 exam, understanding Jenkins’ capabilities, especially pipelines, is crucial. The exam evaluates your ability to integrate various tools into a CI/CD pipeline, automate deployment, and manage lifecycle events. Jenkins is one of the key tools covered under the "Configuration Management and Automation" domain of the exam, making pipeline knowledge essential for success.

Question 10:

What is the primary role of Infrastructure as Code (IaC) tools such as Terraform in a DevOps environment?

A. To enable developers to write application logic using low-level infrastructure APIs.
B. To provision and manage infrastructure using version-controlled code.
C. To monitor the application layer and send alerts.
D. To provide GUI-based interfaces for database schema management.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Infrastructure as Code (IaC) is a key concept in DevOps that refers to managing and provisioning computing infrastructure through machine-readable definition files rather than manual hardware configuration or interactive configuration tools. Tools like Terraform allow teams to define cloud resources—such as virtual machines, networks, load balancers, and containers—in a declarative configuration language.

Option B is correct because it encapsulates the true essence of IaC: managing infrastructure through version-controlled code. This approach provides reproducibility, auditability, and traceability—critical elements in a DevOps pipeline. Terraform, for instance, lets you define your infrastructure as .tf files and stores its state, allowing for efficient resource provisioning and changes over time.

Option A is inaccurate as Terraform and similar tools abstract low-level APIs and offer human-readable configuration formats (e.g., HCL for Terraform). These are designed for infrastructure definition, not application logic.

Option C describes monitoring tools such as Prometheus or Nagios, which focus on observability rather than provisioning.

Option D is incorrect because GUI-based database management is outside the scope of IaC. Tools like Terraform may interact with cloud-based databases (e.g., RDS instances), but they do so at the infrastructure level, not for GUI-based schema manipulation.

In the LPI 701-100 exam, especially under the "Infrastructure as Code" and "Configuration Management" domains, you are expected to understand how tools like Terraform, Ansible, and Puppet contribute to creating reliable, repeatable infrastructure environments. Recognizing the difference between infrastructure management and other DevOps tasks is crucial to answering such questions correctly. IaC is foundational to scalability and maintainability in DevOps, making it a high-priority topic for this certification.