CyberArk ACCESS-DEF Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Which two key benefits does CyberArk’s Privileged Access Security (PAS) solution offer? (Select two.)

A. Centralized control of privileged user credentials
B. Automatic endpoint vulnerability detection
C. Real-time session tracking and audit logging for privileged activity
D. Total prevention of external cyber threats
E. Automated security patch deployment for privileged accounts

Correct Answers: A, C

Explanation:

CyberArk’s Privileged Access Security (PAS) solution is designed to help organizations secure, monitor, and manage privileged accounts, which are commonly targeted by threat actors due to their elevated access. The PAS solution forms a foundational part of an enterprise's identity and access security posture, particularly in highly regulated or security-sensitive environments.

The first major advantage (Option A) is the centralized management of privileged accounts. CyberArk provides a secure digital vault to store and manage credentials for administrative and service accounts across an organization’s infrastructure. The Password Vault Web Access (PVWA) portal allows administrators to enforce password complexity, automate rotation policies, control access permissions, and monitor credential usage from a single interface. This minimizes the risk of credential misuse and ensures compliance with organizational and regulatory security standards.

The second key benefit (Option C) involves real-time session monitoring and auditing of privileged activities. Through its Privileged Session Manager (PSM), CyberArk records every privileged session in detail—video playback, keystrokes, and mouse activity can be audited later. This feature provides transparency into administrative behavior and supports incident response, forensic analysis, and compliance audits. Alerts can be generated if risky behavior is detected during a live session, and sessions can even be terminated proactively.

Now, let’s address the incorrect options:

• Option B (Automatic detection of vulnerabilities in endpoint devices) is outside CyberArk's primary scope. Vulnerability detection is generally handled by vulnerability management tools like Tenable, Qualys, or endpoint protection solutions—not CyberArk’s PAS.

• Option D (Full prevention of external cyberattacks) is unrealistic. No security product can fully eliminate external threats. CyberArk significantly reduces internal attack surfaces, especially those that arise from credential abuse or insider threats, but it is one layer in a larger defense-in-depth strategy.

• Option E (Automated patching of privileged accounts) uses misleading terminology. “Patching” refers to updating software, not user accounts. While CyberArk can automate password changes, it does not perform software patching.

To conclude, centralized account control and real-time monitoring of privileged activity are the standout strengths of CyberArk’s PAS platform. These address critical security gaps in managing high-risk accounts and make A and C the correct answers.

Question 2:

In which three situations are Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) filters commonly applied to enhance security? (Choose three.)

A. Logging into user or admin portals
B. Enforcing MFA at the application level
C. Applying MFA for RADIUS protocol-based access
D. Self-service password recovery workflows
E. Modifying sensitive personal profile attributes
F. Applying MFA to OAUTH2 token-based access

Correct Answers: A, B, E

Explanation:

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) filters are vital in protecting critical access points within identity management and access control systems. These filters enforce additional verification layers—such as biometrics, mobile push notifications, or time-based one-time passwords (TOTP)—beyond a standard username/password combination.

The first valid use case (Option A) is applying MFA during user or admin portal login. These portals serve as gateways to internal applications or system configurations, making them high-value targets. MFA filters here ensure that both end-users and administrators must authenticate with an additional factor before access is granted, reducing the risk of unauthorized entry even if credentials are compromised.

The second valid use case (Option B) involves application-level MFA enforcement. Some applications contain sensitive data or functionality that require additional security even after a user has authenticated to the primary portal. Applying MFA filters directly at the application level (e.g., for finance or HR tools) enables risk-based or context-aware access control policies.

The third correct option (Option E) is applying MFA when editing personal profile attributes, such as email, phone number, or recovery questions. These changes could otherwise allow attackers to hijack accounts or bypass recovery protocols. Requiring MFA ensures that only authorized users can make such modifications, adding a critical layer of identity verification.

Now, let's consider the incorrect choices:

• Option C (RADIUS protocol): While MFA can be integrated into RADIUS workflows (e.g., for VPNs), it usually requires specific third-party integrations or extensions, and isn’t the default context for general MFA filters.

• Option D (Self-service password reset): Though sensitive, this workflow typically uses secondary verification steps like email or SMS confirmation—not formal MFA filters unless explicitly configured in advanced identity systems.

• Option F (OAUTH2 connections): OAUTH2 is generally application-to-application or token-based access, where interactive login is not involved. MFA isn’t applied during token exchanges, making this an uncommon use case for MFA filters.

In summary, MFA filters are best applied at login portals, application access points, and sensitive profile update screens to enforce high-assurance access control. Therefore, the correct answers are A, B, and E.

Question 3:

If a user cannot use a mobile device for multi-factor authentication (MFA), which two options can be provided as alternative MFA methods? (Choose two.)

A. FIDO2
B. Security questions
C. OAuth2
D. QR code
E. Push notification app

Correct Answers: A, B

Explanation:

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) enhances account security by requiring users to provide two or more verification factors. While mobile-based methods—like push notifications or QR codes—are common, some users may not be able to use a mobile device due to company policy, security restrictions, device incompatibility, or personal preference. In such cases, alternative MFA methods must be offered to maintain secure access.

One effective non-mobile method is FIDO2. This is a modern, passwordless authentication standard that uses cryptographic hardware devices (like YubiKeys, or built-in authenticators in laptops) to securely validate identity. FIDO2 operates independently of smartphones, leveraging USB, NFC, or biometric input directly from the user’s laptop or workstation. It ensures strong, phishing-resistant authentication and is compatible with many enterprise systems and identity platforms.

Security questions are another alternative that do not require any device. They prompt users to answer pre-configured personal questions (e.g., "What was the name of your first pet?") to verify identity. While not as secure as FIDO2 or mobile-based methods, security questions are still used as a fallback or in lower-risk scenarios. Their key benefit lies in their accessibility—they can be answered from any device without needing special hardware or apps.

Let’s look at the incorrect options:

• OAuth2 (C) is not an MFA method itself. It is an authorization framework that governs how secure access is delegated between systems. While it can be part of a larger authentication process, it does not serve as a standalone MFA factor.

• QR codes (D) are typically used with mobile authenticator apps like Google Authenticator or Microsoft Authenticator. Scanning the QR code configures the app to generate TOTP codes, which inherently requires a mobile device—making this unsuitable for non-mobile users.

• Push notification apps (E) also require a smartphone or tablet, as the user needs to receive and interact with a notification on their device to approve the login request. This approach clearly does not apply to users without mobile access.

In summary, when mobile devices are unavailable or impractical, FIDO2 hardware-based authentication and security questions are two valid and accessible alternatives for implementing MFA. These methods ensure user flexibility while still supporting organizational security requirements.

Question 4:

A user is unable to log in because their multi-factor authentication (MFA) account setup is incomplete or incorrect. What is the best course of action to resolve the issue?

A. Use the MFA Unlock function in the Admin Portal to temporarily disable MFA for 10 minutes
B. Delete the user's account and create a new one
C. Ask the user to clear all browser cookies and try logging in again
D. Change the user's authentication source from Active Directory to LDAP

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

When a user encounters login issues due to misconfigured multi-factor authentication (MFA), the most effective and least disruptive approach is to use the MFA Unlock feature. This tool is specifically designed for such scenarios and allows administrators to temporarily suspend the MFA requirement—typically for 10 minutes—enabling the user to access their account and resolve the underlying issue with their authentication setup.

Option A is the correct response because it directly addresses the root cause (misconfigured MFA) without compromising account integrity or security. By unlocking MFA temporarily, the administrator gives the user a controlled window to log in and either complete or correct their MFA configuration. This approach avoids unnecessary complications or data loss.

Now let’s analyze the incorrect options:

• Option B, deleting and recreating the user’s account, is overly aggressive and may result in data loss, broken group memberships, and additional administrative overhead. It also doesn't guarantee a resolution, especially if the new account faces the same MFA setup problem.

• Option C, instructing the user to delete browser cookies, is irrelevant to MFA setup issues. While this step can help with local browser session problems, it does nothing to fix account-level MFA configuration errors in identity systems.

• Option D, changing the directory source from Active Directory to LDAP, introduces unnecessary complexity and potential compatibility issues. The problem lies in MFA, not the directory source. Switching identity providers can affect authentication, authorization, and policy enforcement and is not a recommended troubleshooting step for this issue.

In summary, when users face problems logging in due to MFA misconfiguration, the MFA Unlock tool in the Admin Portal offers a safe and effective way to temporarily disable MFA. This allows the user to log in, update their settings, and re-enable secure authentication without administrative disruption.

Question 5:

In the context of enrolling devices into CyberArk Identity’s Windows Device Trust, which of the following statements correctly describes a configuration option related to managing endpoint enrollment?

A. Enrollment codes are optional for adding devices.
B. Devices are not required to be domain-joined to complete enrollment.
C. Administrators can set a maximum number of devices that a user is allowed to enroll.
D. Administrators can define the minimum number of devices a user must enroll.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

CyberArk Identity’s Windows Device Trust capability allows organizations to control and verify which Windows endpoints are authorized to access protected resources. The enrollment process is structured and designed to enforce strong device-level authentication policies. A central component of this setup is the ability for administrators to limit the number of devices that can be enrolled by a given user or group, helping to reduce the risk of credential theft and device sprawl.

Option C is correct because administrators can define the maximum number of endpoints that a user can register or “join” to the trust system. This configuration control helps enforce device hygiene and restricts over-enrollment, which could otherwise lead to unauthorized access from personal or unmanaged devices. For example, an enterprise might permit only two trusted Windows devices per employee to reduce attack surfaces.

Let’s evaluate the incorrect options:

• Option A claims that enrollment codes are optional, which is not accurate. Enrollment codes are a required security measure in CyberArk Identity. They are time-limited and uniquely generated to ensure that only authorized devices can initiate enrollment. Without this code, the enrollment cannot proceed, preventing rogue devices from registering.

• Option B states that domain-joined machines are unnecessary. While CyberArk can technically support both domain-joined and non-domain-joined devices, domain-joined systems are often preferred in enterprise settings due to tighter integration with identity controls. This statement is misleading, as domain membership enhances—but does not strictly define—the security posture.

• Option D refers to defining a minimum number of devices to enroll, which is conceptually irrelevant. Organizations generally focus on setting upper limits for trust management, not mandatory minimums. There is no use case for requiring a user to enroll a specific number of devices as a policy.

Windows Device Trust enhances security by ensuring that only validated, pre-approved devices can access sensitive resources. A key administrative function is setting a maximum number of devices a user may enroll, which helps control the device ecosystem. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Question 6:

ACME Corporation observes multiple unauthorized login attempts to its CyberArk Identity portal originating from IP addresses within the 103.1.200.0/24 range. 

To immediately mitigate this threat and prevent further attempts, which configuration step should the security team take?

A. Add 103.1.200.0/24 to ACME Corporation’s trusted IP list.
B. Add 103.1.200.0/24 to the blocked IP address list.
C. Deploy the Windows Cloud Agent to enforce device trust policies.
D. Implement Zero Trust controls using the App Gateway.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

CyberArk Identity provides granular control over network access through IP range filtering, allowing administrators to permit or deny access from specific IP addresses. When an organization detects a pattern of unauthorized access from a known source—such as the 103.1.200.0/24 subnet—the fastest and most effective countermeasure is to block traffic from that IP range within the CyberArk Identity Admin portal.

Option B is the correct course of action. Blocking the offending IP range ensures that no authentication requests from those addresses will be processed, effectively cutting off further attack attempts. This kind of immediate mitigation is essential in cases of credential stuffing, brute-force login attempts, or malicious scanning.

Here’s why the other options are incorrect:

• Option A would add the attacker’s IP range to the trusted list, which is highly dangerous. Doing so would tell CyberArk Identity to treat this source as safe, giving potential attackers greater freedom to probe or authenticate, worsening the security breach.

• Option C recommends deploying Windows Cloud Agent for device-based trust enforcement, which is useful for ensuring that only registered devices can access resources. However, this measure does not address the source IP issue. Unauthorized attempts could still reach the portal before device-level policies are applied.

• Option D suggests using App Gateway with Zero Trust policies, which is a strategic security approach emphasizing continuous verification of user and device contexts. While effective in the long term, this solution does not offer immediate mitigation for ongoing threats. It requires more time and architectural changes, making it unsuitable for a real-time response.

When under active attack, organizations must prioritize rapid containment. In this case, the most efficient method is to block the malicious IP range directly from the admin portal. This ensures all access attempts from 103.1.200.0/24 are denied outright. Thus, the best action is Option B.

Question 7:

What are two key methods used by CyberArk to secure privileged accounts and their credentials? (Select two.)

A. Storing passwords and SSH keys in a securely encrypted vault
B. Enforcing multi-factor authentication (MFA) for user login
C. Automatically identifying weak passwords across user accounts
D. Relying exclusively on encryption for securing stored data
E. Isolating privileged sessions to block unauthorized activities

Correct Answers: A, E

Explanation:

CyberArk is a leader in Privileged Access Management (PAM), and its platform focuses on protecting sensitive accounts, such as those used by administrators or service processes, which can provide extensive access to an organization's systems. Two of CyberArk’s core technologies for safeguarding privileged credentials are secure vaulting of passwords/SSH keys and session isolation.

Option A is correct because vaulting passwords and SSH keys in an encrypted repository is one of CyberArk’s foundational features. This functionality is provided by the CyberArk Digital Vault, which stores sensitive credentials in an encrypted format that is only accessible through controlled workflows. Access to these credentials is tightly managed, logged, and subject to role-based permissions. Additionally, the system supports automatic password rotation, further reducing the risk of credential compromise.

Option E is also correct, as session isolation is a critical feature delivered through the Privileged Session Manager (PSM) component. PSM intercepts and manages all privileged sessions between users and target systems, acting as a proxy. This session isolation ensures that users never directly access systems using raw credentials. All activity during these sessions is logged, monitored, and can be recorded for auditing purposes. This not only prevents unauthorized actions but also provides visibility into administrative behavior, which is essential for compliance and incident response.

Option B, while a valuable security feature, refers to Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA), which CyberArk can integrate with but does not represent one of its primary methods for securing credentials. MFA is more focused on strengthening identity verification rather than credential management or session control.

Option C refers to scanning for weak passwords, which is not a central feature of CyberArk. Its platform assumes privileged credentials are managed within the vault and regularly rotated, making weak-password detection unnecessary in most use cases.

Option D, which mentions using encryption exclusively, misses the point. Although encryption is important and is certainly used within CyberArk, it is part of a broader security model. Encryption alone does not provide the control, rotation, and auditability that CyberArk emphasizes.

In conclusion, CyberArk’s approach is multi-layered, combining secure credential storage (vaulting) with session isolation and activity monitoring. This ensures not only protection of sensitive data but also accountability and control over how privileged accounts are used. Therefore, A and E are the two correct technologies CyberArk uses for securing privileged credentials and sessions.

Question 8:

Which two components of the CyberArk solution are specifically designed for monitoring and controlling privileged sessions? (Select two.)

A. Privileged Session Manager (PSM)
B. CyberArk Vault
C. Central Policy Manager (CPM)
D. CyberArk Identity Management System
E. Privileged Access Security (PAS) Dashboard

Correct Answers: A, E

Explanation:

CyberArk’s architecture includes several modules, each tailored for a specific function within the realm of Privileged Access Management (PAM). When it comes to monitoring and controlling privileged sessions, two components stand out: the Privileged Session Manager (PSM) and the Privileged Access Security (PAS) Dashboard.

Option A – Privileged Session Manager (PSM) is the core tool CyberArk uses to isolate, monitor, and control privileged sessions. When a privileged user connects to a system (e.g., Windows, Linux, databases), they do so through PSM. The session is proxied, meaning users do not see or handle the actual credentials. Instead, PSM launches the session on their behalf, ensuring tight control over access. PSM logs all activities, records session video/audio, and enables real-time session termination or command blocking based on pre-defined rules. This functionality makes PSM indispensable for compliance and security auditing.

Option E – PAS Dashboard provides a centralized interface for administrators to monitor privileged activity. While it does not initiate or control sessions directly, it visualizes data collected from components like PSM. Security teams can view session logs, audit reports, and receive alerts about unusual behaviors or policy violations. This dashboard enhances operational oversight and helps organizations respond quickly to anomalies.

Option B – CyberArk Vault, while crucial for storing passwords and secrets, does not manage or observe session activity. It functions as a secure repository, playing a vital role in credential lifecycle management, but not in active session control or monitoring.

Option C – Central Policy Manager (CPM) automates the rotation of credentials, ensuring they are updated regularly and comply with security policies. However, CPM is not involved in managing or observing live sessions.

Option D – Identity Management System refers to identity governance solutions, which may include provisioning, single sign-on (SSO), or user authentication tools. While important in broader identity frameworks, it is not CyberArk's component for session control.

In summary, PSM (A) manages session control and security at the technical level, while the PAS Dashboard (E) provides visibility and insight to administrators. These two components work in tandem to monitor, restrict, and audit privileged user activity. 

Question 9:

What is the primary function of the CyberArk Identity Security Platform when integrated with an organization's applications and infrastructure?

A. It provides real-time antivirus and anti-malware protection across all endpoints.
B. It allows storage of personal credentials in a shared encrypted vault.
C. It ensures secure access, authentication, and identity lifecycle management across hybrid environments.
D. It only monitors privileged accounts for potential misuse without enforcing access policies.

Correct Answer:  C

Explanation:

The CyberArk Identity Security Platform is designed to provide a comprehensive approach to securing identities, both human and non-human, across a wide variety of environments. These environments may include on-premises systems, cloud infrastructure, and hybrid configurations.

The correct answer, C, captures the core responsibility of the platform: ensuring secure access, applying authentication mechanisms, and handling the entire lifecycle of identities—from onboarding to de-provisioning. This includes enforcing policies like least privilege access, conditional access rules, and integration with multi-factor authentication (MFA) mechanisms.

Option A is incorrect because CyberArk is not an antivirus or endpoint protection tool. Although it enhances security at the endpoint level (especially through agent-based components and session control), its goal is to manage and secure identities, not to directly fight malware or viruses.

Option B is misleading. While CyberArk solutions include vaulting mechanisms (like the Privileged Access Manager Vault), they are not meant for personal credential storage, especially not in a shared context. CyberArk encourages secure storage of privileged credentials in a controlled and auditable manner, not casual password storage.

Option D is partially true—CyberArk does monitor privileged sessions, but it does much more than that. It enforces access controls, applies just-in-time provisioning, and integrates with various identity providers to support authentication and single sign-on (SSO) strategies.

In summary, the platform's role is comprehensive, and Answer C most accurately reflects its real-world enterprise function: securing access and identity in a scalable, policy-driven manner.

Question 10:

Which of the following best describes the purpose of Device Trust in CyberArk Identity for Windows endpoints?

A. It prevents users from logging in from any unapproved device without installing antivirus.
B. It allows passwordless authentication using certificate-based trust between endpoint and identity service.
C. It enables users to share trusted device tokens across multiple machines.
D. It requires biometric login only from domain-joined Windows devices.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Device Trust is a CyberArk Identity feature used to enhance endpoint security by ensuring that only trusted, known devices are allowed to access corporate resources. The mechanism behind Device Trust for Windows endpoints typically involves certificate-based authentication, which forms a key part of passwordless or low-friction login experiences.

Answer B is correct because it correctly identifies that Device Trust utilizes certificates installed on Windows machines to establish a secure identity assertion with the CyberArk Identity platform. This eliminates the need for users to repeatedly enter passwords, especially in managed, domain-joined machines, and provides device validation at the login stage.

Option A mischaracterizes Device Trust. While it does restrict access to only trusted devices, it has nothing to do with antivirus protection or installation. CyberArk Identity is not a host protection solution; rather, it enforces policies at the access and identity verification layer.

Option C is incorrect because trusted device tokens or certificates are not meant to be shared across devices. The entire purpose of Device Trust is to ensure device uniqueness and integrity, meaning each device must go through an enrollment process and is uniquely identifiable in the system.

Option D includes a partial truth—biometric authentication may be used in conjunction with CyberArk Identity for MFA or SSO, and domain-joined status can be a requirement. However, Device Trust does not inherently mandate biometrics, nor is it limited solely to domain-joined machines depending on how the policy is configured.

Ultimately, Device Trust strengthens identity security by ensuring that authentication requests originate from legitimate, authorized endpoints, and answer B encapsulates that function with precision. This functionality is especially valuable in remote or hybrid work models where device validation is as crucial as user validation.

Therefore, the correct answers are A and E.