CompTIA CA1-005 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

A company intends to build a research facility containing sensitive intellectual property that requires strong protection. The security architect has proposed a security diagram to safeguard this environment. 

Which security architecture model does this diagram represent?

A. Identity and access management model
B. Agent-based security model
C. Perimeter protection security model
D. Zero Trust security model

Answer: D

Explanation:

The security diagram depicts a comprehensive multi-layered security strategy consistent with the Zero Trust model. This model is designed around the core philosophy of "never trust, always verify," meaning that no user or device is trusted by default, regardless of whether they are inside or outside the network perimeter.

Key elements from the diagram align closely with Zero Trust principles:

• Continuous Verification: Every access attempt is verified with local authentication mechanisms, including multi-factor authentication (MFA). This means that even internal users or devices must prove their identity repeatedly before gaining access to any resource.

• Conditional Access Based on Compliance: Before granting access, devices undergo checks such as agent-based protection status, antivirus updates, and identity and access management (IAM) validation. Devices failing these checks are required to remediate issues before proceeding, ensuring that only secure and compliant devices interact with sensitive data.

• Microsegmentation and Role-Based Access Control (RBAC): The architecture segments access by roles and responsibilities. Systems like file servers, network data loss prevention (DLP), and virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) environments apply strict access policies, limiting lateral movement and exposure within the network.

• No Implicit Trust: The architecture does not assume trust based on network location. Each session and resource request requires explicit authentication and authorization, minimizing the risk of insider threats or compromised credentials gaining broad access.

Why the other options do not fit:

• A (Identity and Access Management Model): While IAM is an integral part of Zero Trust, the architecture shown encompasses broader controls, including device compliance and network segmentation.

• B (Agent-based Security Model): Agent-based protection is one component but does not represent the holistic approach seen here.

• C (Perimeter Protection Model): Traditional perimeter security trusts anyone inside the network. This model explicitly rejects that assumption.

In summary, the diagram represents a security model where trust is continuously evaluated, and access is strictly governed at every layer, which clearly characterizes the Zero Trust security model.

Question 2:

A financial technology company collaborates with industry partners to share cyber threat intelligence via a centralized platform. This setup enables the sharing of data related to emerging cyber threats from various adversaries. 

Which two technologies should the company adopt to support this intelligence sharing?

A. CWPP
B. YARA
C. ATT&CK
D. STIX
E. TAXII
F. JTAG

Answer: D, E

Explanation:

The scenario describes a collaborative platform where multiple organizations exchange threat intelligence data. The ideal solutions for this purpose are STIX and TAXII, which together form a standardized and automated framework for sharing cyber threat information.

STIX (Structured Threat Information Expression):
STIX is a widely accepted, machine-readable language designed for representing threat intelligence in a structured format. It enables organizations to consistently describe various cyber threat components such as:

• Indicators of compromise (IOCs)

• Threat actors and their behaviors

• Tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs)

• Campaigns and attack observations

By adopting STIX, multiple entities can exchange complex threat data in a standardized way, facilitating automated analysis, correlation, and defensive measures.

TAXII (Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information):
TAXII complements STIX by providing a secure transport protocol for exchanging threat intelligence. It handles how data is transmitted, including:

• Pulling and pushing intelligence feeds

• Publishing new threat indicators

• Subscribing to and receiving real-time threat updates

TAXII uses HTTPS and supports automated sharing, which is crucial for timely threat response and collaboration.

Why the other options are unsuitable:

• A (CWPP): Cloud Workload Protection Platforms focus on securing cloud workloads, not sharing threat data.

• B (YARA): Primarily used for malware detection through pattern matching, not for structured threat intelligence exchange.

• C (ATT&CK): A knowledge base of adversary behaviors used for analysis and detection strategies, not a sharing protocol.

• F (JTAG): A hardware debugging standard unrelated to cybersecurity intelligence sharing.

In conclusion, for effective, scalable, and automated sharing of cyber threat intelligence, organizations rely on STIX for data formatting and TAXII for secure data transport. This duo enables collaborative defense and improves industry-wide cybersecurity posture.

Question 3:

An organization’s gap assessment reveals that BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) usage is a significant security concern. Although administrative policies ban BYOD access, no technical controls are in place to stop unauthorized BYOD devices from connecting to company resources.

Which two technical solutions should be implemented to effectively reduce the risks posed by BYOD devices? (Select two.)

A. Cloud IAM with token-based MFA enforcement
B. Conditional Access to enforce user-device binding
C. Network Access Control (NAC) to enforce device configuration requirements
D. Privileged Access Management (PAM) for enforcing local password policies
E. SD-WAN for web content filtering via external proxies
F. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) for data protection capabilities

Correct Answers: B, C

Explanation:

The issue described points to a disconnect between administrative policy and technical enforcement. Although the company has prohibited BYOD use in policy, without technical measures, users can still access resources from personal devices, exposing the organization to security risks.

To mitigate BYOD risks effectively, the best approach involves controls that enforce device compliance and restrict access based on device status.

Why Conditional Access (B) is essential:
Conditional Access policies, typically implemented via cloud identity platforms like Azure Active Directory or Okta, enable organizations to create granular access rules. These rules can enforce that only devices registered and compliant with security standards may access sensitive cloud or network resources. By binding user authentication to trusted devices, conditional access blocks unauthorized personal devices (BYOD) even if users have valid credentials, making it a powerful tool for enforcing BYOD restrictions.

Why Network Access Control (NAC) (C) is critical:
NAC solutions operate at the network layer, enforcing device posture before allowing network access. NAC can detect whether a device is corporate-managed or personal, verify compliance with security configurations such as updated antivirus software and OS patches, and deny access to non-compliant or unknown devices. This ensures that unauthorized BYOD devices cannot connect to the internal network, protecting the corporate environment from potential vulnerabilities introduced by unmanaged devices.

Why the other options are less suitable:

• Cloud IAM/MFA (A): While token-based multifactor authentication improves login security, it does not restrict access based on the device itself. A BYOD device could still pass MFA if the credentials are correct.

• Privileged Access Management (D): PAM is focused on securing privileged accounts and managing passwords, which is unrelated to controlling device access.

• SD-WAN (E): This technology optimizes network traffic routing and may include web filtering, but it doesn’t prevent unauthorized devices from connecting.

• DLP (F): Data Loss Prevention protects sensitive data from leaking but does not enforce device compliance or restrict access.

In conclusion, combining Conditional Access (B) and Network Access Control (C) bridges the gap between policy and technical enforcement, ensuring BYOD devices are effectively blocked from accessing company systems and reducing overall security risks.

Question 4:

A security administrator is conducting a gap assessment against an operating system security benchmark that mandates the following endpoint settings: full disk encryption, host-based firewall, time synchronization, password policies, application allow listing, and Zero Trust application access.

Which two solutions would best support implementing and auditing these security requirements? (Select two.)

A. Mobile Device Management (MDM)
B. Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)
C. Software Bill of Materials (SBoM)
D. Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)
E. Secure Access Service Edge (SASE)
F. Host Intrusion Detection System (HIDS)

Correct Answers: A, D

Explanation:

This question focuses on identifying technologies that both enforce and audit endpoint security settings required by a stringent OS benchmark. The benchmark’s requirements include technical controls that span encryption, firewall settings, time synchronization, password policies, application control, and Zero Trust access.

Why Mobile Device Management (MDM) (A) is the best fit:
MDM platforms such as Microsoft Intune, VMware Workspace ONE, and Jamf provide centralized management of endpoint devices. They allow administrators to enforce security policies and configurations remotely and at scale, including:

• Enabling full disk encryption (BitLocker for Windows, FileVault for macOS)

• Configuring host-based firewalls and defining rules

• Managing system settings like time synchronization

• Enforcing password complexity and rotation rules

• Controlling application allow listing to limit software execution

• Implementing Zero Trust principles by evaluating device compliance before granting resource access

MDM solutions offer an integrated, policy-driven approach to ensure endpoints meet security baselines, making them indispensable for compliance with OS security benchmarks.

Why Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) (D) is essential:
SCAP is a standardized method for automating the assessment and reporting of system security compliance against predefined baselines like DISA STIGs or CIS Benchmarks. SCAP tools:

• Scan devices to validate that required configurations (encryption, firewalls, password policies) are in place

• Detect deviations from benchmark policies

• Generate compliance reports to guide remediation efforts
  Although SCAP does not enforce settings directly, it provides critical auditing and compliance verification capabilities, ensuring the MDM-enforced policies are effective and consistent.

Why the other options are not ideal:

• CASB (B): CASBs focus on securing cloud applications and do not control local device OS configurations.

• SBoM (C): Software Bill of Materials tracks software components for supply chain transparency but does not manage device security policies.

• SASE (E): SASE integrates SD-WAN and security at the network edge but does not configure or audit local device settings.

• HIDS (F): Host Intrusion Detection Systems monitor for attacks or suspicious activity but do not enforce or verify endpoint configuration baselines.

In summary, MDM (A) is the best tool for pushing and enforcing the necessary endpoint configurations, while SCAP (D) provides automated compliance assessment and reporting. Together, they fulfill the requirements for enforcing and auditing the OS benchmark settings comprehensively.

Question 5:

A global company is evaluating various vendors to outsource a critical payroll process. Each vendor proposes utilizing local personnel in multiple regions to ensure compliance with regional regulations. The organization’s Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is performing a risk assessment on the subprocessors engaged by these vendors.

What is the primary reason for the CISO to conduct this risk assessment?

A. Risk mitigation must exceed that of the current payroll provider.
B. Due diligence is required throughout procurement activities.
C. The organization retains ultimate responsibility for protecting personally identifiable information (PII).
D. Regulatory compliance must be ensured in every jurisdiction.

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

This scenario focuses on the CISO’s responsibility to assess risks related to subprocessors used by third-party vendors involved in payroll outsourcing. Payroll systems inherently deal with sensitive personally identifiable information (PII), making its protection paramount. Despite outsourcing, the organization that owns the data remains ultimately responsible for safeguarding that information.

Data privacy laws worldwide, such as the European Union’s General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) and the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA), emphasize that the data controller—here, the global organization—is accountable for ensuring all data processors and subprocessors comply with strict security and privacy requirements. This means that even if subprocessors handle the data, the organization must ensure they maintain proper controls.

The risk assessment performed by the CISO serves to verify that subprocessors meet organizational standards and regulatory mandates. It includes reviewing their security posture, ensuring proper contractual protections like data processing agreements (DPAs), and ongoing monitoring of compliance and performance.

Why option C is correct: The principle that the organization retains responsibility for PII protection is foundational. The CISO’s risk assessment embodies this accountability by scrutinizing subprocessors to confirm they maintain confidentiality, integrity, and lawful handling of sensitive data.

Why the other options are less suitable:

• A focuses on comparing risk mitigation levels rather than establishing fundamental responsibility.

• B refers to general procurement diligence but doesn’t specifically address the need related to PII and subprocessors.

• D highlights regulatory compliance but does not capture the core accountability principle that drives the risk assessment.

Ultimately, outsourcing does not absolve the organization of its legal and ethical duties to protect PII. The risk assessment ensures subprocessors’ security aligns with this responsibility, which is why C is the best answer.

Question 6:

A manufacturing facility is upgrading its IT services. The leadership team has identified several key challenges:

• High and seasonal employee turnover

• Harsh environmental conditions damaging endpoint devices

• The critical need to minimize operational downtime

• Regulatory requirements for data retention

Which solution best addresses all these concerns?

A. Implement additional environmental controls to protect hardware
B. Deploy non-persistent virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) using thin clients
C. Set up redundant file servers with database journaling enabled
D. Maintain a stockpile of spare endpoint devices for quick replacement

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

The situation describes a manufacturing plant facing operational and technical challenges that demand a robust, flexible IT solution. High staff turnover implies frequent onboarding and offboarding, necessitating easy management of user access and data. The harsh conditions put physical devices at risk of damage, so endpoint resilience is critical. Minimizing downtime is essential to maintain productivity, and strict data retention regulations require secure, centralized management of information.

Option B, implementing a non-persistent VDI environment accessed via thin clients, effectively meets all these requirements:

• Addressing high staff turnover: Non-persistent VDI means user sessions are temporary and centrally managed. Employees can be quickly provisioned or deprovisioned without data being saved locally on endpoints, streamlining onboarding and offboarding.

• Handling extreme environmental conditions: Thin clients are simpler, less expensive, and generally more durable than full workstations. If a thin client fails due to environmental damage, the user’s session and data remain intact on the centralized server, minimizing disruption.

• Reducing downtime: Since the VDI environment is hosted on redundant, highly available data centers, the failure of any single thin client doesn’t prevent users from reconnecting immediately from another device.

• Meeting data retention and compliance: Data and applications reside on secure central servers rather than on fragile endpoint devices, enabling consistent enforcement of backup, retention, and security policies.

Why the other options are less optimal:

• A (environmental controls) may reduce hardware damage but doesn’t help with quick user provisioning or data centralization.

• C (redundant servers and journaling) enhances data availability but doesn’t address endpoint fragility or simplify user session management in a high-turnover environment.

• D (spare endpoint inventory) helps with hardware replacement but doesn’t solve data retention or onboarding complexities, and managing large inventories is costly.

By centralizing computing through VDI and using thin clients, the manufacturing plant can provide a resilient, secure, and flexible environment that directly addresses staffing, environmental, operational, and regulatory challenges. Therefore, option B is the most comprehensive solution.

Question 7:

A company runs a dynamic application security testing (DAST) scan on their web application, which produces the following recommendations:

• Implement cookie prefixes.

• The Content Security Policy is missing the setting SameSite=Strict for cookies.

Which security vulnerability is the scan primarily indicating?

A. RCE
B. XSS
C. CSRF
D. TOCTOU

Answer: C

Explanation:

The DAST tool has detected vulnerabilities related to how cookies are handled within the web application, specifically advising the use of cookie prefixes and the enforcement of the SameSite=Strict attribute. Both recommendations directly target the mitigation of Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attacks.

Understanding the recommendations:

• Cookie prefixes: These are special prefixes like __Secure- and __Host- that impose strict rules on how cookies are transmitted. For example, cookies with the __Secure- prefix must be sent over secure HTTPS connections, and those with the __Host- prefix require strict path and domain restrictions. This helps reduce the risk that cookies will be leaked or sent in unintended contexts.

• SameSite cookie attribute: The SameSite attribute controls when cookies are included with cross-origin requests. Setting SameSite=Strict ensures cookies are not sent on any requests initiated by third-party websites. This is a key defense against CSRF, which exploits the browser’s automatic cookie sending behavior.

What is CSRF?
Cross-Site Request Forgery is a type of attack where a malicious site tricks a user’s browser into making unintended requests to a web application where the user is authenticated. Because browsers automatically include cookies (session tokens) with such requests, the attacker can perform unauthorized actions like changing account settings or initiating transactions, all without the user’s consent or knowledge.

Why the recommendations help:

• By using SameSite=Strict, the browser blocks cookies on cross-site requests, preventing the malicious third-party from hijacking user sessions.

• Cookie prefixes ensure cookies have strong security properties and are less vulnerable to theft or misuse.

Why the other options are incorrect:

• RCE (Remote Code Execution): This vulnerability allows attackers to run arbitrary code on the server. The recommendations around cookie handling do not relate to RCE protections.

• XSS (Cross-Site Scripting): While CSP (Content Security Policy) is often used to prevent XSS, cookie prefixes and SameSite attributes do not directly mitigate script injection attacks.

• TOCTOU (Time-of-Check to Time-of-Use): This is a race condition vulnerability unrelated to cookie management.

In summary, the DAST scan’s advice focuses on cookie management to prevent unauthorized cross-origin requests, which is the core method of mitigating CSRF vulnerabilities.

Question 8:

During the migration of a company’s email service to an external provider (my-email.com), the security engineer encounters issues. 

Given a DNS configuration snippet, which two modifications should be made to resolve these problems?

A. Change the email CNAME record to an A record pointing to 192.168.1.11
B. Modify the TXT record to "v=dmarc ip4:192.168.1.10 include:my-email.com ~all"
C. Change the srv01 A record to a CNAME pointing to the email server
D. Change the email CNAME record to an A record pointing to 192.168.1.10
E. Update the TXT record to "v=dkim ip4:192.168.1.11 include:my-email.com ~all"
F. Change the TXT record to "v=spf ip4:192.168.1.10 include:my-email.com ~all"
G. Change the srv01 A record to a CNAME pointing to web01 server

Answer: D and F

Explanation:

This question focuses on troubleshooting email delivery and authentication issues after migrating email services to a third-party provider, my-email.com. The DNS records involved include CNAME, A, and TXT records, which are critical for routing and verifying email.

Key issues identified:

1. The email CNAME record:
   Currently, the DNS record for email.company.com is a CNAME pointing to srv01.company.com, which itself resolves to an internal IP (192.168.1.10). Using a CNAME for a mail-related subdomain is generally discouraged because:

• Mail servers and services expect direct A records to resolve properly and avoid indirect lookups.

• Pointing to a private IP address (192.168.x.x) is invalid for external mail routing since it is not reachable outside the company’s internal network.

Recommended fix:
Change the email record from a CNAME to an A record directly pointing to the mail server’s valid IP address, which is 192.168.1.10 in this case (assuming it’s reachable or will be updated to a public IP). This will ensure proper mail routing.

2. TXT record for SPF:
   The current TXT record appears to be a malformed or incorrect DMARC entry and lacks an SPF record, which is crucial for email authentication. SPF (Sender Policy Framework) specifies which mail servers are authorized to send emails on behalf of the domain, preventing spoofing and improving deliverability.

Recommended fix:
Add a correct SPF record in the TXT record, such as:
"v=spf ip4:192.168.1.10 include:my-email.com ~all"
This authorizes the specified IP and the external provider to send mail, helping mail receivers validate emails legitimately sent by the company.

Why other options are incorrect:

• Changing CNAME to an A record pointing to a different IP (192.168.1.11) may not be relevant if that IP is unrelated to mail.

• DMARC record syntax must follow the correct format (v=DMARC1)—incorrect formats will cause validation failures.
  
  

• Changing srv01 to a CNAME or pointing it to unrelated servers (web01) is irrelevant or harmful to mail flow.

• DKIM records are cryptographic and do not use IP addresses in the same way SPF does, so option E is invalid.

Correctly setting the email DNS record to an A record ensures mail routing functions properly. Adding a valid SPF record authorizes legitimate mail senders and improves email security and deliverability. These two changes address the primary issues in the migration.

Question 9:

A security analyst is reviewing a system log with various file activities. Which event from the log should the analyst prioritize for further investigation?

A. A macro that was blocked from running
B. A text file suspected of containing leaked passwords
C. A malicious file executed within the system
D. A PDF that may have improperly exposed sensitive data

Answer: C

Explanation:

The correct answer is C because it reflects the most critical potential security threat indicated by the log. The log records multiple file events with details such as file type, size, antivirus (AV) status, and location. The analyst’s task is to identify which file event warrants deeper scrutiny.

Reviewing the entries:

• A large text file (.txt) at 11:25 was blocked by AV, suggesting the antivirus detected suspicious content and prevented it from running or being accessed.

• A dynamic link library (.dll) file at 11:27, 10 MB in size, was allowed by AV and located in the temporary folder (c:\temp).

• A document (.doc) file was blocked at 11:29, which may indicate a macro or embedded malicious code was prevented.

• A PDF file at 11:32 was allowed, and a large text file at 11:35 was allowed as well.

Let’s analyze the options:

• A. The blocked macro embedded in the document suggests the threat was stopped. Since it was blocked, it poses less immediate risk.

• B. The blocked text file at 11:25 is unlikely to have leaked passwords since AV blocked it. If the file was blocked, it presumably didn’t execute or leak information.

• C. The allowed DLL file is the most concerning. DLL files are executable components that malware often uses for code injection or persistence. The fact that this file was allowed, resides in the temporary folder (a common staging ground for attacks), and is executable, means it may have been used maliciously without detection. This file poses the greatest threat because it was not stopped by AV and could have compromised the system.

• D. The allowed PDF doesn’t show any clear indication of a security breach. While PDFs can leak data, the log shows no suspicious flags or size anomalies.

In conclusion, C is the best answer because it describes an executable file allowed by antivirus, located in a high-risk directory often abused by attackers, making it the most likely candidate for malicious activity requiring immediate investigation.

Question 10:

Following the discovery of a zero-day vulnerability in its VPN system, a company plans to migrate to cloud-hosted resources. 

Which solution capability best supports establishing trusted and secure connectivity in this new environment?

A. Container orchestration
B. Microsegmentation
C. Conditional access
D. Secure Access Service Edge (SASE)

Answer: D

Explanation:

The correct answer is D, Secure Access Service Edge (SASE). The scenario involves a company addressing a critical zero-day vulnerability in its VPN solution, prompting a transition from on-premises infrastructure to cloud-hosted resources. The main challenge is to implement a secure, trusted connectivity solution that replaces traditional VPNs while supporting cloud access and remote work.

Breaking down the options:

• A. Container orchestration focuses on managing application containers (e.g., Kubernetes). While essential for deploying cloud-native applications, it does not provide network security or user access control, so it’s irrelevant here.

• B. Microsegmentation involves dividing the network into smaller, isolated zones to reduce internal attack surfaces. It strengthens internal security but does not handle secure, remote connectivity or replace VPNs. It complements network security but is not a standalone connectivity solution.

• C. Conditional access applies policies to control user access based on conditions such as user identity, device health, or location. This is an important layer of security but does not establish or manage the connectivity infrastructure itself. It is typically part of identity and access management (IAM), not a replacement for VPN connectivity.

• D. Secure Access Service Edge (SASE) combines network and security functions into a cloud-native service designed to replace traditional VPNs. It integrates SD-WAN, Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA), cloud security broker services, firewall as a service, and secure web gateways. SASE enables secure, scalable access to both cloud and on-premises resources from any location while enforcing zero-trust security principles.

Given the need to migrate from VPNs and provide trusted connectivity for cloud-hosted resources, SASE offers a comprehensive solution that addresses the shortcomings of legacy VPNs, especially after discovering a zero-day vulnerability.

In summary, D is the best choice as it directly supports modern, secure connectivity needs in hybrid and cloud environments, making it the most appropriate response to the scenario.