CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

A company is taking steps to enhance the security of its development workflow by ensuring developers cannot directly deploy code or artifacts into the production environment. 

Which of the following strategies would most effectively prevent developers from having such direct deployment capabilities?

A. Apply least privilege access across all systems
B. Conduct regular security training sessions for employees
C. Establish separation of duties through policies and supporting systems
D. Implement a job rotation system for developers and administrators
E. Require mandatory vacations for all development personnel
F. Audit access permissions to production systems every three months

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

When it comes to safeguarding the development pipeline, particularly ensuring developers are unable to deploy code directly into production, implementing separation of duties is the most effective approach. This principle ensures that no single individual has the authority to complete all stages of a critical process, thereby reducing the likelihood of unauthorized or accidental deployments.

Let's evaluate the provided options:

A. Least privilege access is a fundamental cybersecurity practice, limiting users to only those privileges essential for their job. However, this does not inherently prevent developers from accessing production systems unless explicitly configured as part of a broader access control strategy. It’s a useful principle, but not sufficient on its own for preventing production deployments.

B. Security awareness training raises general understanding about cyber threats and good practices among employees. While helpful in reducing human error and social engineering risks, it doesn’t put technical or procedural roadblocks in place to prevent developers from deploying code.

C. Separation of duties, the correct answer, is a critical control in secure system design. In this case, development, testing, and deployment responsibilities are handled by different roles or teams. For example, developers write the code, quality assurance teams test it, and a separate operations or DevOps team manages the deployment through controlled release pipelines. This segregation ensures developers cannot push changes directly to production, effectively minimizing both error and malicious intent.

D. Job rotation may reduce insider threats and prevent over-familiarity with a particular system, but it doesn't directly prevent deployment to production. It's more of an organizational security practice rather than a technical or process-level control against unauthorized deployments.

E. Mandatory vacations, like job rotation, are designed to expose fraudulent behavior or unauthorized actions by requiring others to take over job functions temporarily. While useful for detection of ongoing issues, it doesn’t actively prevent access or actions in real time.

F. Quarterly access reviews are an important governance measure to reassess permissions, but they are reactive rather than proactive. By the time a misconfiguration or violation is detected, damage could already be done.

Ultimately, the best defense is to implement clear, enforced separation of duties so that developers are structurally and technically unable to push artifacts into the production environment. This approach ensures robust oversight, accountability, and a secure software delivery process.

Question 2:

What is the most effective method the security architect should recommend to prevent a serious security vulnerability in this code?

A. Move processing to the client side
B. Use query parameterization techniques
C. Normalize database data structures
D. Block potentially harmful escape characters
E. Encode all URLs before processing

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The code snippet shows a classic example of SQL injection vulnerability, where unsanitized user input is directly inserted into an SQL statement. This makes the system susceptible to malicious inputs that can manipulate the SQL query and potentially expose or damage data.

The variable Request("ItemID") receives user-supplied data, which is directly appended into the SQL command string. If a user inputs something like 105 OR 1=1, the query becomes:
SELECT Item FROM Catalog WHERE ItemID = 105 OR 1=1,
which returns all records, potentially compromising the database’s integrity.

Let’s analyze each option:

A. Client-side processing moves logic to the user's browser, but this offers no protection against SQL injection since the vulnerability exists on the server where the SQL query is executed. Users can manipulate client-side code, so security must be enforced server-side.

B. Query parameterization, the correct answer, resolves SQL injection risks by ensuring user input is treated as data, not executable code. Parameterized queries use placeholders in the SQL statement and bind user inputs as parameters. This approach ensures that input is interpreted strictly as a value, regardless of any embedded SQL syntax.

Here, the database engine expects a single value for ItemID, and no amount of SQL syntax entered by the user will alter the command structure. This approach is widely supported in modern development frameworks and is a gold standard for secure database access.

C. Data normalization relates to structuring databases to reduce redundancy. It’s unrelated to input sanitization or protection against injection attacks.

D. Escape character blocking attempts to strip or block certain characters (like ' or ;) often used in attacks. While partially effective, it can be error-prone, bypassed with encoding, and lacks the robustness of parameterization.

E. URL encoding changes special characters in URLs to safe formats (e.g., converting & to %26). While helpful in ensuring clean HTTP requests, it does not sanitize SQL inputs.

In conclusion, query parameterization is the best practice to prevent SQL injection. It provides a strong, framework-supported method of ensuring safe data handling and shielding applications from one of the most common and dangerous web vulnerabilities.

Question 3:

A CRM provider is using a Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) offering from a Cloud Service Provider (CSP) to deliver its Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) solution to customers. One of its enterprise clients requests that all infrastructure components supporting the service comply with strict regulatory mandates, including areas like patching, configuration, and system life cycle management. 

Who bears the responsibility for ensuring these compliance requirements are met?

A. The CRM company
B. The CRM company’s customer
C. The Cloud Service Provider (CSP)
D. The regulatory authority

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In this situation, the CRM company is providing a Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) application by utilizing the infrastructure and platform capabilities offered by a Cloud Service Provider (CSP) under the Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) model. When a customer imposes regulatory requirements—particularly those tied to configuration management, patching, and system lifecycle processes—the accountability for meeting those expectations primarily resides with the CRM company.

Under the shared responsibility model, which is common in cloud environments, responsibilities are divided based on the cloud service model in use. In a PaaS model, the CSP manages core platform infrastructure (servers, networks, databases, runtime, etc.), while the customer—here, the CRM company—is responsible for the application layer, including deployment, security configurations, updates, patches, and lifecycle policies related to their own service.

Even though the underlying infrastructure is maintained by the CSP, the CRM company customizes, deploys, and manages its application within that environment. Therefore, it must implement the necessary compliance controls and document how it adheres to those standards to satisfy client demands. This includes ensuring data handling, application logic, and system updates are governed properly.

Let’s consider each option:

• A. The CRM company (Correct): The CRM provider owns the SaaS application and is responsible for implementing the controls that meet the client’s compliance needs. This includes overseeing how the application is configured, patched, and maintained within the PaaS environment.

• B. The CRM company’s customer: While customers can dictate compliance needs through contracts or service-level agreements (SLAs), they are not accountable for managing the systems hosting the service. Their role is to define expectations, not to enforce or execute them.

• C. The Cloud Service Provider (CSP): The CSP is accountable for securing and managing the platform’s foundational infrastructure. However, responsibility for compliance above the infrastructure layer—such as how the application is patched or configured—falls to the SaaS provider.

• D. The regulatory authority: Regulatory bodies create and enforce compliance standards but do not participate in operationalizing compliance within a company’s cloud environment.

In conclusion, the CRM company must ensure that all regulatory requirements related to its service are met, regardless of its dependency on the CSP’s platform. Thus, the correct answer is A.

Question 4:

Company A, a small regional business, has recently merged with Company B, a large international organization. On the first day of the new Chief Information Officer's (CIO) tenure, a fire breaks out at Company B’s primary data center, threatening core IT infrastructure. 

What should the CIO do first in response to this crisis?

A. Check whether both companies have tested their incident response plans and follow them accordingly.
B. Review the current incident response strategies and activate the disaster recovery plan while working with IT leaders from both companies.
C. Confirm the availability of alternative recovery sites and immediately update senior leadership.
D. Apply Company A’s existing IT procedures, evaluate damage, and conduct a Business Impact Analysis (BIA).

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

In the event of a major crisis like a fire at a primary data center, immediate action is crucial to minimize service disruption and data loss. The newly appointed Chief Information Officer (CIO) must prioritize a structured and efficient response to stabilize the situation. While understanding long-term impacts and performing assessments is important, the first step must focus on activating an effective, pre-established response plan.

Option B is the best course of action. The CIO should begin by reviewing the incident response and disaster recovery plans of both companies involved in the merger. Even though Company A and B are now united, their respective IT systems, procedures, and staff may still be operating independently. Therefore, integrating and coordinating their expertise is essential. Engaging the disaster recovery plan ensures that systems can be restored from backup locations or alternate infrastructures, and critical business operations can resume promptly.

Let’s evaluate the other options:

• A. Checking whether the incident response plans have been tested is important, but doing so in the middle of an ongoing crisis could cause unnecessary delays. Now is not the time for assessment—it’s time for execution based on existing plans.

• C. While confirming the availability of hot, warm, or mobile recovery sites is relevant, this should be a part of the disaster recovery plan, not a separate first step. Also, providing status updates to leadership is secondary to initiating response operations.

• D. Using Company A’s procedures and performing a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) could lead to confusion or misalignment, especially in a merged environment where Company B is the one directly impacted. BIAs are important but are typically conducted after the initial response phase, not during the crisis.

The CIO’s initial action should focus on immediate recovery and stabilization, guided by existing response protocols. Involving IT leaders from both organizations ensures that technical expertise, system knowledge, and communication lines are effectively coordinated. Activating the disaster recovery plan provides a structured framework to handle the emergency efficiently. Hence, the best answer is B.

Question 5:

A cybersecurity analyst is examining a suspected insider threat where someone used an unauthorized USB device with a shared user account to steal data. The security tools in place did not trigger an alert during this event. After confirming that the USB device’s hardware ID is not part of the company’s authorized list, the analyst is still unsure of the device owner. 

What is the most appropriate classification of this incident at this point?

A. Classify the incident as a false positive
B. Classify the incident as a false negative
C. Classify the incident as a true positive
D. Classify the incident as a true negative

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

This incident revolves around the use of an unauthorized USB device connected to a shared account for potential data exfiltration. Importantly, no security alert was triggered at the time, even though the activity was outside policy and involved a device not on the approved hardware list. Given these facts, the correct classification of this incident is a false negative.

To understand why B is the correct response, let's explore the terminology:

A false positive happens when a system generates an alert for an action that is not genuinely malicious. This is not the case here, as no alert was triggered and the activity is clearly suspicious.

A false negative occurs when a real threat or policy violation takes place but fails to generate an alert. This perfectly matches the current scenario. The USB device was not approved and may have been used for malicious data transfer. The fact that it bypassed detection mechanisms without raising any alarms signifies a detection failure—a hallmark characteristic of a false negative.

A true positive would require that a legitimate threat (like unauthorized USB usage for data theft) be detected by the system, triggering an alert. Since that did not happen, this classification does not apply here.

A true negative refers to a benign event correctly identified as non-malicious, with no alert triggered. Again, this doesn’t fit the scenario, because the event was in violation of policy and potentially harmful.

Therefore, classifying this event as a false negative is appropriate because it was a real security concern that went undetected by the current security infrastructure. The analyst's next step should involve investigating the failure in detection—why the USB policy enforcement didn’t work—and updating detection mechanisms to ensure such actions are flagged in the future. Also, determining the user responsible for the device should be a priority to mitigate insider threats. This scenario highlights the importance of refining alert systems and endpoint monitoring to prevent blind spots in data protection efforts.

Question 6:

What security benefits do digital email signatures provide in the context of secure communication?

A. Non-repudiation
B. Body encryption
C. Code signing
D. Sender authentication
E. Chain of custody

Correct Answers: A and D

Explanation:

Email signatures—particularly digital ones using cryptographic techniques—offer specific security functions that enhance the trustworthiness and accountability of email communication. Two major security features provided by digital email signatures are non-repudiation and sender authentication.

Non-repudiation ensures that the sender of a message cannot deny sending it. This is achieved using cryptographic methods such as public-key infrastructure (PKI). When an email is digitally signed, the private key of the sender is used to generate the signature. Only the sender possesses this private key, so if the signature is valid, it is cryptographic proof that the sender authored and sent the email. This is particularly important in legal, financial, or sensitive communications where proving authorship is critical.

Sender authentication is another significant feature. Email signatures authenticate the identity of the sender by verifying that the message was signed with the private key corresponding to the sender’s public key. If the digital signature validates successfully, it confirms that the message indeed came from the expected source. This helps prevent spoofing or impersonation attacks, which are common in phishing campaigns.

Let’s now look at the incorrect options:

Body encryption is not provided by digital signatures. Although a signature can ensure the integrity and origin of the message, it does not encrypt the contents. Encryption is a separate process—typically handled through technologies like S/MIME or PGP—that ensures the confidentiality of the message.

Code signing pertains to the validation of software code and has no direct relation to email messages. It is used to verify that software has not been tampered with and comes from a trusted source. Email signatures are designed for message authentication, not software integrity.

Chain of custody refers to the documented and chronological control of evidence. While email signatures can prove a message hasn’t been altered, they do not establish a formal chain of custody, which involves multiple steps of handling and tracking.

In summary, digital email signatures ensure that messages are authenticated and that senders cannot deny having sent them. These capabilities make A. Non-repudiation and D. Sender authentication the correct answers.

Question 7:

An organization is planning to implement a Zero Trust architecture. As a senior security engineer, which of the following components is MOST critical for enforcing Zero Trust principles within the internal network?

A. Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)
B. Identity and Access Management (IAM)
C. Network Address Translation (NAT)
D. Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR)

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Zero Trust is a cybersecurity model based on the principle of “never trust, always verify.” It assumes that threats exist both inside and outside the network, and no user or system should be automatically trusted—even if they are within the organization’s perimeter.

The most critical component in enforcing Zero Trust is Identity and Access Management (IAM). IAM provides the capability to identify users, validate their credentials, and enforce access policies based on roles, behaviors, and contextual attributes (such as device, location, and time). In a Zero Trust environment, access to resources is granted based on granular identity and access controls, not network location.

Option A, the DMZ, is a traditional network security boundary technique that separates external from internal traffic. While still useful in some architectures, it does not offer the granular control or dynamic trust evaluation needed for Zero Trust.

Option C, NAT, is primarily used to conserve IP addresses and manage traffic routing between private and public networks. While it plays a role in network design, it does not contribute directly to access control decisions or policy enforcement.

Option D, EDR, is useful for detecting and responding to endpoint-level threats, but it focuses on threat detection and response rather than proactive access enforcement.

Thus, IAM systems are central to implementing authentication, authorization, and accountability—the three core principles of Zero Trust. Features such as Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA), Role-Based Access Control (RBAC), and integration with directory services (e.g., Active Directory or LDAP) make IAM solutions essential. Without a robust IAM system, organizations cannot enforce the verification and least privilege principles that are foundational to Zero Trust.

Question 8:

A security architect is reviewing a proposal to host a company’s sensitive application in a public cloud environment. 

Which of the following risk mitigation strategies BEST supports a secure cloud deployment?

A. Rely solely on the cloud provider’s default security configuration
B. Implement application-level encryption and secure API gateways
C. Use port forwarding and basic firewall rules
D. Migrate the application without making any code changes

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Cloud security presents unique challenges because organizations rely on third-party infrastructure while still being responsible for securing their own data and applications. In the shared responsibility model, cloud providers manage the security of the cloud (infrastructure), but customers must manage the security in the cloud (applications, data, access controls).

Option B, which involves application-level encryption and secure API gateways, is the best approach to mitigate risks when deploying sensitive applications in the cloud. Application-level encryption ensures that data is encrypted at the source and remains encrypted throughout its lifecycle. This is especially important when data must meet compliance requirements (e.g., HIPAA, GDPR, PCI DSS). Secure API gateways provide an additional layer of control over how applications interact, enabling the use of rate-limiting, access tokens, OAuth, and input validation to prevent abuse.

Option A, relying solely on the cloud provider’s default security configuration, is inadequate. Default settings are often generalized and may not align with an organization’s specific security requirements or threat model.

Option C, using port forwarding and basic firewall rules, may provide some network-level controls, but these are insufficient for protecting sensitive data in a complex cloud application. Modern threats often bypass traditional firewalls through application-level attacks.

Option D, migrating the application without code changes, could lead to significant vulnerabilities. Applications written for on-premises environments may not be optimized for cloud security contexts. Ignoring this could result in misconfigurations, poor encryption practices, or compatibility issues with security controls.

In summary, strong data protection and secure API access are critical components of a secure cloud strategy. These practices ensure data confidentiality, integrity, and secure communication, regardless of where the application is hosted. Leveraging techniques such as data tokenization, TLS, and identity-aware proxies further strengthens cloud application resilience. This aligns with the CASP+ exam’s focus on enterprise security, risk management, and secure integration of cloud technologies.

Question 9:

A security architect is designing a solution for a multinational company to ensure that sensitive data is protected during transmission between data centers in different countries. The solution must comply with regional data protection laws and provide confidentiality and integrity without relying solely on IPsec. 

Which of the following technologies BEST meets these requirements?

A. TLS with mutual authentication
B. SFTP with PGP encryption
C. MPLS with QoS tagging
D. DNSSEC with digital signatures

Correct Answer:  A

Explanation:

This question focuses on secure communication between geographically distributed data centers, which must comply with regional data privacy laws and maintain confidentiality and integrity of the data. It also rules out sole reliance on IPsec, prompting a solution at a higher or more application-centric layer.

Option A – TLS with mutual authentication – is the best answer because TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a robust encryption protocol that provides both data confidentiality and integrity. When combined with mutual authentication (where both the client and server authenticate each other using digital certificates), it offers strong protection against man-in-the-middle (MitM) attacks and ensures secure communication channels. TLS can be implemented at the application layer (e.g., HTTPS, secure APIs, email), making it versatile and suitable for regulatory compliance.

Option B – SFTP with PGP encryption – provides a secure method of file transfer and additional encryption. While SFTP ensures secure channeling of files, and PGP secures data at rest and during transfer, it is more suitable for file-level protection rather than continuous data stream protection between data centers.

Option C – MPLS with QoS tagging – addresses performance and availability (Quality of Service) but does not inherently offer encryption or integrity checks, which are crucial for data protection regulations.

Option D – DNSSEC with digital signatures – protects DNS data integrity, ensuring that DNS responses are not tampered with, but it does not encrypt data in transit or protect non-DNS-related communication.

In conclusion, TLS with mutual authentication meets both the regulatory and security demands for data-in-transit across international data centers by encrypting and verifying communication endpoints.

Question 10:

An organization is implementing a zero-trust architecture to enhance its cybersecurity posture. As part of this strategy, they want to ensure that users and devices are continuously verified before being granted access to sensitive resources. 

Which of the following should the organization implement to align with zero-trust principles?

A. Network segmentation with VLANs
B. Multi-factor authentication (MFA) and continuous monitoring
C. Security information and event management (SIEM)
D. Federated identity management (FIM)

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Zero-trust architecture (ZTA) is a security model built on the principle of “never trust, always verify.” In this model, no user or device—whether inside or outside the network perimeter—is trusted by default. Continuous authentication and authorization based on dynamic context are key components.

Option B – Multi-factor authentication (MFA) and continuous monitoring – is the correct choice. MFA is crucial in a zero-trust model because it ensures that user identity is verified using two or more factors, reducing the risk of credential theft. Continuous monitoring ensures that trust is never permanent and is re-evaluated based on user behavior, risk scores, and device posture. This aligns with zero-trust principles by enforcing least privilege access and real-time evaluation.

Option A – Network segmentation with VLANs – improves internal security posture by limiting lateral movement within a network but does not independently fulfill zero-trust’s core requirement of continuous identity and device verification.

Option C – SIEM provides event correlation and alerting, which supports broader security operations but is a reactive tool. While useful in detecting anomalies, it doesn’t proactively enforce zero-trust access controls.

Option D – Federated identity management (FIM) allows users to access multiple systems using a single identity across domains, but without continuous validation and device checks, it lacks the dynamic trust assessment that zero-trust requires.

Ultimately, MFA and continuous monitoring offer proactive, identity-driven, and dynamic enforcement mechanisms that define a robust zero-trust architecture—making B the most accurate and complete answer.