Isaca CCAK Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Which consideration is most likely to determine whether security controls must be strengthened or reduced when a change occurs in an organization's SaaS provider relationship?

A. Risk exceptions policy
B. Contractual requirements
C. Risk appetite
D. Board oversight

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

When a business relies on a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider, any modification to the provider’s infrastructure, security posture, or service delivery model can present new risk factors. Managing these risks effectively often requires reassessing existing security controls to determine whether they need to be tightened, altered, or potentially even scaled back. The most influential factor in deciding how to adjust those controls is the contractual obligations defined in the service agreement between the organization and the SaaS vendor.

Contractual requirements typically outline key areas such as data security responsibilities, compliance standards, service level agreements (SLAs), incident response expectations, and audit rights. These legally binding terms form the baseline against which risk is assessed. When the SaaS provider updates its offerings—whether through infrastructure changes, service deprecation, or modified terms of service—these changes must be evaluated in light of what the existing contract permits and protects. If new gaps are identified (e.g., if encryption standards change or if third-party access policies are modified), new controls may be required to uphold the same level of security and compliance previously guaranteed. Conversely, if the vendor enhances their controls or certifications, an organization might reduce some of its oversight activities.

Let’s break down why the other options are less impactful:

• A (Risk exceptions policy) is a governance tool that outlines when an organization may consciously accept a risk without applying full mitigation measures. While it supports risk-based decisions, it doesn’t proactively trigger changes in controls—it allows exceptions rather than mandates changes.

• C (Risk appetite) describes how much risk the organization is willing to tolerate, but it functions more as a guiding principle rather than a direct influence on specific control measures tied to SaaS vendor activity. It sets the tone but not the technical response.

• D (Board oversight) offers high-level governance and strategic direction. While the board may influence major risk policy changes, it usually does not deal with operational details or specific control implementations related to vendor modifications.

In summary, contractual requirements form the legal and operational foundation for the organization's relationship with the SaaS provider. Any change on the vendor’s part requires review of the contract to determine what actions must be taken. Therefore, the most likely factor to affect the expansion or reduction of security controls in such cases is B.

Question 2:

A cloud provider commissions a penetration test on its infrastructure. The test is carried out without informing the security team or sharing any prior system knowledge with the auditors. 

What type of penetration testing approach does this represent?

A. Double gray box
B. Tandem
C. Reversal
D. Double blind

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In cybersecurity, penetration testing is an essential method for assessing the robustness of an organization's defenses. It involves simulated attacks conducted by ethical hackers to uncover vulnerabilities. The approach or model of the test determines how much information is shared with the testers and how prepared the organization is for the simulation. In this scenario, the cloud service provider (CSP) has commissioned a test where the auditors are given no prior knowledge of the infrastructure, and the internal security team (such as the SOC) is not informed. This setup characterizes a double-blind penetration test.

A double-blind test is designed to closely mirror the conditions of a real-world cyberattack. Since both the attackers (testers) and defenders (security team) are unaware of the planned test in advance, it removes any bias or artificial preparation from the assessment. The security operations center must detect, analyze, and respond in real-time without knowing they are being tested, which provides an authentic measure of the organization’s detection and incident response capabilities.

Let’s explore why the other answer choices are not applicable:

• A (Double gray box) refers to a scenario where testers operate with partial knowledge—perhaps some internal architecture or credentials—but this still involves a degree of coordination. The described test involves no such knowledge, disqualifying this option.

• B (Tandem) suggests a collaborative penetration test between internal and external teams, possibly running in parallel. However, the scenario lacks this cooperative element and focuses instead on secrecy and realism.

• C (Reversal) is a rare and unconventional test model where the organization attempts to identify vulnerabilities in the testers’ systems, essentially flipping the usual roles. This is not what's happening in the described case.

The double-blind approach is widely regarded as one of the most effective methods to evaluate an organization’s actual security posture under real-world conditions. It ensures that automated systems, monitoring tools, and human analysts are performing as expected without the benefit of foresight or advanced warning.

Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it best matches the scenario where neither the testers nor the internal defenders are informed beforehand.

Question 3:

If a cloud audit team cannot fulfill the originally approved audit plan due to limited resources, and this shortcoming is disclosed in the audit report, what should be the primary focus moving forward?

A. Prioritize auditing areas with the highest risk
B. Evaluate the design of cloud control mechanisms
C. Depend on management’s testing of cloud controls
D. Test the ongoing performance of cloud controls

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

When an audit team faces limitations in resources—be it time, personnel, or budget—it's imperative to reassess the scope and reprioritize the audit strategy to deliver meaningful value. In such cases, risk-based auditing becomes essential. The primary focus should shift to examining high-risk areas, as these are more likely to harbor vulnerabilities that could lead to significant negative outcomes if left unaddressed.

Option A is the correct and most strategic course of action. By concentrating on areas deemed high-risk, the audit team ensures that its limited efforts are used efficiently to detect the most impactful issues. These areas could include systems handling sensitive data, poorly configured cloud resources, or components with a history of security incidents. Even with a reduced audit plan, focusing on high-risk areas helps the organization proactively manage its most pressing threats, thereby maximizing the effectiveness of the audit within existing constraints.

Option B, which involves testing the adequacy of control design, is certainly important in assessing whether controls are structured effectively. However, evaluating control design across the entire environment may not be feasible when resources are limited. Furthermore, well-designed controls may still fail if not properly implemented or maintained, which may go unnoticed unless the highest-risk elements are prioritized.

Option C suggests relying on management’s own testing of cloud controls. While management testing can provide useful insights, auditors should not rely solely on it. Internal stakeholders may lack objectivity, and their assessments could be influenced by operational pressures. Independent verification by the audit team—particularly in critical areas—is vital for maintaining integrity and objectivity.

Option D, testing the operational effectiveness of cloud controls, is another crucial audit function. However, this process can be resource-intensive, particularly across a wide range of systems. Focusing this effort on high-risk domains is more practical and impactful than attempting a broader, shallow audit.

In summary, when resources are constrained, auditors must make strategic decisions about what to review. Prioritizing high-risk areas ensures the audit still provides valuable assurance by focusing on the aspects of the cloud environment where the consequences of failure are greatest. This approach aligns with professional auditing standards and risk-based methodologies.

Question 4:

What is the most frequent reason that employees violate organizational policies?

A. Accidental behavior
B. Intentional misconduct by the internet service provider
C. Purposeful actions by staff
D. Intentional wrongdoing by the cloud vendor

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In most organizational settings, policy violations are not the result of malicious intent but rather stem from unintentional human errors. These incidents often occur due to lack of awareness, misunderstandings, or oversight rather than deliberate disregard for rules.

Option A, accidental violations, is the most accurate and commonly observed cause. Employees may breach policies without realizing it—perhaps by accessing sensitive files without proper authorization, misconfiguring cloud storage permissions, or sharing documents through unapproved platforms. These actions are often rooted in gaps in training, misinterpretation of policy documents, or failure to stay updated on changes in organizational protocols.

Option B, which claims the violations are caused deliberately by the Internet Service Provider (ISP), is incorrect and unlikely. ISPs generally do not interact with the internal policy mechanisms of an organization. Moreover, they operate under strict regulatory and contractual obligations, which minimize the chances of intentional violations from their side. Any infractions by ISPs would typically be contract breaches, not internal policy violations.

Option C, suggesting that employees intentionally violate policies, does apply in some scenarios—such as when individuals try to bypass security controls for convenience or personal gain. However, deliberate misconduct represents a minority of cases. Most policy breaches arise from ignorance rather than intent.

Option D, which attributes deliberate violations to the cloud provider, is highly improbable. Reputable cloud service providers implement comprehensive security and compliance programs due to regulatory requirements and business imperatives. Deliberate violations by a cloud vendor would severely damage their reputation and are exceedingly rare.

To mitigate accidental policy violations, organizations should invest in continuous security awareness training, clear communication of expectations, and user-friendly policies. Automated tools that monitor and enforce compliance in real-time can also significantly reduce unintentional missteps.

In conclusion, accidental violations (Option A) remain the most prevalent cause of policy breaches in modern enterprises. Addressing these issues requires a proactive combination of education, user-friendly policy design, and effective governance rather than focusing exclusively on punitive measures.

Question 5:

What is the most suitable framework for thoroughly auditing cloud-specific security controls and ensuring comprehensive coverage across cloud environments?

A. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
B. ISO 27001
C. Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) 140-2
D. CSA Cloud Control Matrix (CCM)

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In cloud environments, ensuring robust security control auditing is essential due to the dynamic nature of cloud infrastructure, shared responsibility models, and evolving compliance requirements. Selecting the right framework for such audits is critical to identifying gaps, verifying configurations, and maintaining regulatory alignment.

Let’s examine each option:

• A. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR): GDPR is a legislative framework enacted by the European Union to enforce the privacy and protection of personal data. While GDPR influences how cloud service providers manage customer data, it is not a tool or framework for auditing cloud security controls. GDPR dictates what data handling processes must be in place but does not provide a technical audit framework for evaluating security controls in cloud environments.

• B. ISO 27001: This globally accepted standard sets the requirements for an Information Security Management System (ISMS). It offers a broad, risk-based approach to managing information security, including processes, policies, and controls. However, ISO 27001 is not tailored specifically for cloud environments. While it’s beneficial in establishing security governance, it lacks the granularity to audit cloud-specific controls like virtualization security, shared responsibility, or multi-tenant isolation.

• C. FIPS 140-2: This standard, developed by the U.S. government, specifically assesses cryptographic module security. It is essential for validating the strength of encryption algorithms and their implementation. Despite its importance in ensuring secure data encryption, FIPS 140-2 is not a general-purpose framework for auditing cloud security environments.

• D. CSA Cloud Control Matrix (CCM): The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) developed the Cloud Control Matrix (CCM) as a comprehensive and cloud-centric framework. It specifically addresses security, compliance, and risk management in cloud computing. The CCM includes detailed controls mapped to cloud-specific services, making it ideal for auditing the architecture, infrastructure, data protection, IAM (Identity and Access Management), and legal compliance elements in a cloud setup. Its mapping to other standards (such as ISO 27001, NIST, and PCI DSS) adds further value.

Thus, Option D—CSA Cloud Control Matrix—is the most effective tool for conducting a thorough audit of cloud security controls, as it is specifically designed for the cloud and covers all critical domains with precision.

Question 6:

Which security control best ensures that traffic between trusted and untrusted network segments is properly restricted, monitored, and justified through documented service and port usage?

A. Network Security
B. Change Detection
C. Virtual Instance and OS Hardening
D. Network Vulnerability Management

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Properly managing the flow of traffic between trusted and untrusted systems is foundational to cybersecurity. This involves controlling access, monitoring usage, and justifying the inclusion of services and ports to reduce the attack surface. The correct control must offer both proactive defense and ongoing traffic governance.

Here’s a breakdown of each option:

• A. Network Security: This option refers to the broad set of technologies and controls that regulate and protect network traffic. Network security encompasses firewalls, segmentation, intrusion prevention systems, and traffic monitoring. These tools enforce boundary protection, limit exposure to untrusted entities, and ensure that only sanctioned services and ports are accessible. This control aligns perfectly with the question’s intent: managing traffic between trust zones and documenting exceptions through rule sets or security policies.

• B. Change Detection: Change detection involves identifying alterations in system or network configurations. Although it's useful for spotting unauthorized or unexpected changes, it is a reactive control. It does not directly address traffic filtering or access control between trust boundaries and lacks the enforcement component required for this scenario.

• C. Virtual Instance and OS Hardening: This refers to minimizing system vulnerabilities by securing virtual machines and operating systems, such as by disabling unused services or patching known issues. While it enhances the individual host's security posture, it does not directly manage network traffic or interconnectivity between trusted and untrusted zones.

• D. Network Vulnerability Management: This involves scanning and assessing the network for potential vulnerabilities. It is primarily a detection and remediation tool rather than one that actively restricts or monitors traffic flows. While it's vital in an overall security strategy, it’s not the correct fit for enforcing or documenting access rules between trust zones.

Therefore, Option A (Network Security) is the most appropriate control, as it directly supports the restriction, monitoring, and justification of traffic between trusted and untrusted environments—central themes in the question.

Question 7:

An attacker exploited a vulnerability on a public-facing server and gained unauthorized access to an encrypted file system. The attacker then corrupted several files by overwriting segments with random data. 

According to Top Threats Analysis principles, how should the technical impact of this event be classified?

A. Integrity breach
B. Control breach
C. Availability breach
D. Confidentiality breach

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

This scenario illustrates a case where a threat actor successfully infiltrates an organization's system and intentionally alters file content. The files are not deleted or exposed but are partially overwritten with random data, which renders them inaccurate and unreliable.

According to the Top Threats Analysis methodology, this type of attack must be categorized based on the nature of the harm caused to the system's core security principles: Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability (CIA Triad).

• Integrity refers to the trustworthiness and accuracy of data. When files are overwritten or tampered with, even if just partially, the information they contain can no longer be trusted. The act of modifying files with meaningless or unexpected data violates the data’s integrity. It doesn’t matter if the attacker didn't delete the files or make them inaccessible—what matters is that the original data has been corrupted or manipulated, which directly compromises integrity.
  
  

• Option A (Integrity breach) is correct because this is a textbook example of an integrity violation. The attacker altered data in such a way that it became unreliable or incorrect. The system may still function, and the files may still be available, but the content cannot be considered valid anymore.

Now let’s evaluate the incorrect options:

• Option B (Control breach): This refers to a situation where security controls (e.g., firewalls, access permissions) are bypassed or disabled. Although the attacker likely bypassed some controls, the actual damage described—tampering with files—is not itself a breach of controls but a consequence of unauthorized access.

• Option C (Availability breach): This classification applies when services or data are rendered unavailable. While the corrupted files might be harder to use, they are still technically available—just no longer accurate. The focus here is on data accuracy, not access.

• Option D (Confidentiality breach): This involves unauthorized disclosure of information. In this case, there’s no indication that the attacker exfiltrated or leaked data, so confidentiality was not the primary aspect compromised.

Therefore, the correct classification of the attack’s technical impact is A. Integrity breach—since the attack altered data content and compromised its trustworthiness.

Question 8:

Why is it important for organizations to create and maintain mappings between the various security control frameworks they follow?

A. To detect controls that have the same assessment status
B. To eliminate redundant efforts when performing compliance assessments
C. To identify controls that have different statuses across frameworks
D. To automatically initiate a compliance assessment using the latest results

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Modern organizations are often required to adhere to multiple security, privacy, and compliance standards. These might include frameworks like NIST, ISO 27001, CIS Controls, PCI DSS, HIPAA, and others. Each framework defines a set of security controls, often with overlapping objectives.

Maintaining mappings between these frameworks involves identifying where control requirements from one framework align with or mirror those from another. This strategic effort results in reduced duplication, streamlined audits, and more efficient compliance processes.

• Option B (To eliminate redundant efforts when performing compliance assessments) is the correct answer. By mapping similar controls across different frameworks, organizations can assess a single control once and use the results to satisfy multiple regulatory or certification requirements. This dramatically cuts down on labor and resource usage. For example, if a firewall configuration satisfies both ISO 27001 and NIST SP 800-53 requirements, it can be documented once and reused across assessments.

Here’s why the other options are less accurate:

• Option A (To detect controls with the same assessment status): While a mapping might reveal this kind of information, it’s not the primary reason organizations maintain these relationships. Status visibility is more of a side benefit rather than the core objective.

• Option C (To identify controls with different statuses across frameworks): This could be helpful during an audit, but again, this is a byproduct of mapping, not its main purpose. Organizations don’t build mapping frameworks solely to find differences—they use them to find similarities and avoid doing the same work repeatedly.

• Option D (To automatically initiate a compliance assessment using the latest results): This statement is misleading. While control mappings can inform and improve the efficiency of assessments, they do not themselves initiate assessments. Assessments require human or automated processes initiated separately.

In summary, the primary motivation for maintaining control framework mappings is to streamline compliance by eliminating redundant assessments, aligning efforts across multiple frameworks, and improving resource allocation. Hence, the correct answer is B.

Question 9:

What is the primary activity involved in Static Application Security Testing (SAST)?

A. Analyzing the source code of an application
B. Evaluating the user interface of a running application
C. Inspecting all components of infrastructure
D. Manually attempting to exploit the application

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Static Application Security Testing (SAST) is a widely used code-level testing methodology in secure software development practices. It is known as a white-box testing technique because it requires full visibility into the application’s source code, binary code, or bytecode. The fundamental goal of SAST is to identify security vulnerabilities early in the development lifecycle—before the application is compiled and executed in a live environment.

Let’s review each option to understand why Option A is correct:

• Option A (Analyzing the source code of an application):
  This is the correct description of SAST. It scans the actual codebase to detect common programming mistakes, misconfigurations, and security flaws such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), or insecure API usage. SAST tools parse the code statically and use pattern-matching techniques, data flow analysis, and rule-based engines to pinpoint risks without executing the application.

• Option B (Evaluating the user interface of a running application):
  This activity is more aligned with Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST), which examines how an application behaves during execution. DAST works from the “outside-in,” often treating the application as a black box. This is not what SAST does.

• Option C (Inspecting all components of infrastructure):
  SAST has no direct interaction with the infrastructure such as servers, networks, or databases. Infrastructure vulnerability assessment is typically handled by separate tools or processes like CSPM (Cloud Security Posture Management) or vulnerability scanners, not by SAST.

• Option D (Manually attempting to exploit the application):
  This is a description of penetration testing or ethical hacking, where testers simulate real-world attacks to exploit vulnerabilities. SAST does not involve active exploitation; it’s focused on code analysis to prevent vulnerabilities from existing in the first place.

In conclusion, SAST is a proactive approach designed to identify and resolve issues early, saving both time and cost compared to post-deployment fixes. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Analyzing the source code of an application.

Question 10:

If a client's business processes evolve, what should be the appropriate course of action regarding the existing Service Level Agreement (SLA) with the Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

A. Review the SLA, but do not update it
B. Skip the SLA review and cancel the cloud contract
C. Avoid reviewing the SLA as it cannot be changed
D. Reassess and update the SLA as needed

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a foundational document in any relationship between a cloud service provider (CSP) and its customer. It outlines the service expectations, performance metrics, availability guarantees, and responsibilities of both parties. As organizations grow or shift their operational models, their IT requirements—and by extension, their cloud service expectations—may also change.

Here’s how each option stands up:

• Option A (Review the SLA, but do not update it):
  This is not a sound approach. Although reviewing the SLA is good practice, refusing to update it means the agreement could become misaligned with the client's current business needs. This can result in gaps in service delivery, missed performance targets, or unmet compliance requirements.

• Option B (Skip the SLA review and cancel the cloud contract):
  This is an overly drastic and inefficient step. If business needs have changed, it’s typically more practical to revisit and renegotiate the SLA. Cancellation might only be necessary if the CSP cannot accommodate the new needs, which should only be determined after a proper review.

• Option C (Avoid reviewing the SLA as it cannot be changed):
  This is factually incorrect. SLAs are generally flexible contracts designed to evolve with business needs. Most CSPs anticipate SLA changes and often provide structured processes for updates, especially in long-term engagements or managed services.

• Option D (Reassess and update the SLA as needed):
  This is the correct course of action. When a client’s business processes shift—whether due to digital transformation, increased data volume, new compliance standards, or expanded global operations—it is essential to revisit the SLA. Updates might include changing uptime guarantees, altering data residency clauses, or expanding support hours.

Ultimately, keeping the SLA current ensures that the client’s evolving expectations are clearly communicated and formally agreed upon. This helps both parties stay accountable and aligned.

So, the correct answer is D: Reassess and update the SLA as needed.