ServiceNow CIS-ITSM Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

When running a report on the cmdb_ci_computer table in ServiceNow, which types of Configuration Items (CIs) will be included in the report results?

A. Only CIs directly stored in the cmdb_ci_computer table
B. CIs directly in cmdb_ci_computer as well as all its parent class tables
C. CIs directly in cmdb_ci_computer along with all its child class tables

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In ServiceNow, the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) organizes Configuration Items (CIs) using a hierarchical class structure. The cmdb_ci_computer table serves as a parent or base table for various specific computer-related CI types such as servers, virtual machines, and network adapters, which are implemented as child tables extending from cmdb_ci_computer.

When you generate a report targeting the cmdb_ci_computer table, the results will include not only the records stored directly in this table but also all records in the child tables that inherit from it. This is because ServiceNow’s database inheritance allows queries on a parent table to encompass its subclasses, meaning CIs defined in any child classes will be aggregated in reports against the parent.

Option A is incorrect because limiting the report to just the cmdb_ci_computer table excludes any related CIs stored in the child tables, which defeats the purpose of leveraging the class hierarchy for comprehensive reporting.

Option B is also wrong because querying a child table (like cmdb_ci_computer) does not automatically include CIs from parent tables. The inheritance flows downward for reporting purposes—parent queries include child data, but not vice versa.

Option C correctly captures the behavior of ServiceNow’s class model. Reporting on a parent class such as cmdb_ci_computer aggregates both its direct records and all instances from its descendant tables. This inheritance-based design simplifies data management and reporting by grouping related CI types under broader categories.

Understanding this inheritance is vital when working with ServiceNow CMDB to ensure reports reflect the full scope of relevant CIs without missing child class instances.

Question 2:

Which field from a Configuration Item (CI) in ServiceNow is automatically used to populate the Assignment group field when creating an incident?

A. Managed by
B. Support group
C. Approval group
D. Change group

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

In ServiceNow’s Incident Management process, when an incident is linked to a specific Configuration Item (CI), certain fields on the incident form can be automatically populated based on attributes defined in the related CI. This automation helps direct the incident to the appropriate support team quickly, reducing manual input and speeding up issue resolution.

The Support group field on a CI is specifically designed to identify the team responsible for maintaining and supporting that CI. When an incident references a CI, ServiceNow uses the CI’s Support group field to auto-fill the incident’s Assignment group. This ensures that the incident is routed directly to the group equipped to handle problems related to that particular configuration item.

Option A, Managed by, typically represents the person or organization responsible for overall ownership of the CI but does not dictate operational incident handling. Therefore, it is not used for populating the Assignment group.

Option C, Approval group, refers to the group responsible for approving changes or requests related to the CI but is unrelated to incident assignment.

Option D, Change group, designates the team responsible for executing or managing change tasks on the CI. While important in change management, it does not influence incident assignments.

Thus, the Support group is the most relevant and commonly configured field to automate the Assignment group on incidents. This linkage improves incident triage accuracy and efficiency by ensuring that the right teams receive issues related to their supported assets, which leads to faster resolution and better service management outcomes.

Question 3:

Which three elements are typically defined within a change model? (Choose three.)

A. Phase transitions
B. State model
C. State transition conditions
D. Phase model
E. State transitions

Answer: A, C, E

Explanation:

A change model describes how an entity or process moves through various stages or conditions over time. To understand what is typically defined within such a model, it’s important to clarify the roles of each option in relation to change management.

Phase transitions represent the movement from one phase to another in a process. These transitions signify important shifts or milestones and help track progress through a change lifecycle. In many change models, phases mark broader stages of activity, and the transitions between these phases are explicitly defined. This makes phase transitions a core element of a change model.

State transition conditions specify the exact criteria or triggers required for the system to move from one state to another. These conditions govern when and why a change happens and are essential for ensuring that changes occur in a controlled and predictable manner. Without clearly defined transition conditions, it would be impossible to manage the change process effectively.

State transitions describe the actual change from one defined state to another within a process. They represent the fundamental movement within a change model, reflecting shifts in status or condition. These transitions form the backbone of the model, enabling tracking and management of changes step-by-step.

In contrast, a state model generally refers to a formal or theoretical representation of all possible states and transitions, rather than a component explicitly defined by a specific change model. Similarly, a phase model often refers to high-level stages in a broader project or organizational process, which is related but not identical to the elements specifically defined in a change model.

Thus, the essential components defined within a change model are phase transitions, state transition conditions, and state transitions (options A, C, and E). These elements collectively define how and when changes occur, allowing for structured and manageable change processes.

Question 4:

At what point is a change task for a Post Implementation Review (PIR) created in the case of an unauthorized change?

A. When the change request is moved to the Close state
B. When the change manager approves the change
C. When the change request enters the Review state
D. When the change request enters the Assess state

Answer: C

Explanation:

A Post Implementation Review (PIR) is a key process in change management, conducted after a change has been executed to evaluate its success, impact, and adherence to procedures. This review is especially critical for unauthorized changes, where proper approval was not obtained before implementation. The PIR helps identify what went wrong, assess any risks or damage, and recommend corrective actions.

Analyzing the options in the context of change management workflow clarifies when the PIR task should be created:

Option A, creating the PIR task when the change moves to Close, is generally too late. The Close phase signals that the change process is being finalized, so the PIR should ideally be underway or scheduled before closure.

Option B involves the change manager’s acceptance of the change, which usually happens before implementation. Since the PIR assesses completed changes, this step is unrelated to creating a PIR task for unauthorized changes.

Option D is the Assess state, an early phase where the change is evaluated for risks and impacts before execution. At this point, the change hasn’t occurred yet, so creating a PIR task here wouldn’t make sense.

Option C is when the change request enters the Review state. This is the stage specifically designed to evaluate the outcomes of a change, including any unauthorized changes. At Review, the change’s impact is analyzed, and a PIR task can be created to ensure a thorough post-implementation analysis is completed.

Therefore, the most appropriate time to create a PIR task for an unauthorized change is during the Review phase, making option C the correct choice.

Question 5:

Which tool should you use to navigate through the full hierarchy and examine the table structures of Configuration Management Database (CMDB) classes?

A. Reports
B. CI Class Manager
C. Application Menus
D. Dependency View

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The ideal tool to explore the entire hierarchy and detailed table definitions of CMDB classes is the CI Class Manager. The Configuration Management Database (CMDB) organizes Configuration Items (CIs) in a structured hierarchy that reflects relationships and dependencies among components in an IT environment. The CI Class Manager is specifically designed to provide an interactive interface for viewing and managing these classes.

With the CI Class Manager, you can browse through different CI classes, see their attributes, and understand how these classes relate to each other within the CMDB’s structure. It gives a comprehensive view of the schema behind the CMDB, including the underlying tables, which is essential for administrators or developers who need to customize or understand the CMDB data model deeply.

Looking at the other options, Reports (Option A) are primarily used to generate summaries or insights based on CMDB data but do not provide the structural or hierarchical exploration needed to understand class definitions or relationships.

Application Menus (Option C) serve as navigation points within a system or platform but do not offer tools for examining the CMDB class hierarchy or tables. Their purpose is to help users find and launch applications or modules, not explore data structures.

Dependency View (Option D) visually maps relationships and dependencies between Configuration Items, but it lacks the ability to drill down into class hierarchies or see detailed table schemas. It is useful for understanding CI interdependencies but not for exploring the full CMDB class structure.

Therefore, for anyone needing to thoroughly explore and understand CMDB classes and their table definitions, the CI Class Manager is the correct and most effective tool.

Question 6:

Which of the following actions cannot be performed using a Catalog UI Policy in ServiceNow?

A. Making a variable mandatory
B. Enforcing a requirement across all form views
C. Setting a catalog category’s visibility
D. Making a variable read-only

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In ServiceNow, Catalog UI Policies are powerful tools designed to dynamically control the behavior of variables within Service Catalog forms. They allow administrators to set variables as mandatory, read-only, or visible based on conditions, enhancing the user experience and form functionality without coding.

Option A (Making a variable mandatory) is fully supported by Catalog UI Policies. You can configure a variable to be required based on user inputs or other form variables, ensuring that users provide necessary information.

Option B (Applying a requirement across all form views) is somewhat nuanced. While Catalog UI Policies typically target specific catalog item forms, they can be configured to apply conditions dynamically. However, they do not globally enforce settings across every possible form view by default, but they can affect multiple views of the targeted catalog item.

The correct answer is Option C (Setting a catalog category’s visibility). Catalog UI Policies do not control the visibility of entire catalog categories. Instead, visibility of categories is managed through Access Control Rules, roles, or other catalog-specific conditions, which govern who can see or access catalog categories. This is outside the scope of UI policies, which only influence form variables.

Option D (Making a variable read-only) is a core capability of Catalog UI Policies. You can set variables to be read-only under certain conditions, preventing users from modifying specific fields dynamically.

In summary, while Catalog UI Policies are essential for managing variable behaviors on catalog forms, they do not manage the visibility of catalog categories themselves. This distinction makes Option C the correct answer.

Question 7:

Which type of service catalog item enables users to create an incident record directly through the service portal?

A. Incident Template
B. Request Item
C. Order Guide
D. Record Producer

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In IT service management platforms like ServiceNow, catalog items are tools designed to simplify user requests by providing pre-built forms or bundles of services. Each catalog item type serves different purposes, so understanding which one facilitates the creation of an incident record directly from the portal is crucial.

Incident Templates (Option A) provide predefined incident forms that help standardize incident creation but are not catalog items accessible for users to initiate requests through the portal. They act more like backend tools for rapid incident generation by admins or automated processes rather than direct user interaction.

Request Items (Option B) represent individual service requests in the catalog, typically tied to tangible services or assets users can order, like software installation or hardware procurement. While related to requests, they aren’t designed to dynamically create incident records since incidents often require flexible data capture beyond static service requests.

Order Guides (Option C) let users order multiple catalog items in a guided, sequential manner, ideal for complex or bundled service requests but not for creating singular records such as incidents. They streamline multi-item ordering rather than serve as a portal interface for incident creation.

Record Producers (Option D) are specialized catalog items created to allow users to submit forms that directly generate new records in specified tables — for example, the incident table. They provide customizable forms tailored to the data needed for incident management. When a user submits a record producer form, a new incident record is created seamlessly.

Thus, the record producer is the catalog item specifically designed to enable end-users to create incident records directly from the service portal with an intuitive form experience. This approach empowers users while maintaining structured incident data capture and workflow integration, making D the correct answer.

Question 8:

Which two roles related to incident management are enabled by installing the ITSM Roles plugin (com.snc.itsm.roles) in ServiceNow?

A. sn_incident_read
B. itsm_incident_read
C. incident_manager
D. sn_incident_write
E. itsm_incident_write

Correct Answers: B, D

Explanation:

In ServiceNow, role-based access control ensures that users have appropriate permissions aligned with their job functions. Installing the ITSM Roles plugin (com.snc.itsm.roles) activates specific roles that facilitate efficient incident management by defining clear access levels for users who interact with incident records.

One such role enabled is itsm_incident_read (Option B). This role grants read-only access to incident records, allowing users such as analysts or support staff to view incidents without the ability to make changes. This read permission is vital for roles involved in monitoring, reporting, or investigating incidents while preserving data integrity.

Another critical role activated is sn_incident_write (Option D), which provides users with the ability to create, update, and resolve incident records. This write access is essential for incident managers or support technicians who need to actively manage the lifecycle of incidents — from initial logging to final resolution.

Other options help clarify what the plugin does not activate: sn_incident_read (Option A) is a basic read role but isn’t specifically tied to the ITSM Roles plugin installation. incident_manager (Option C) is a managerial role typically assigned separately and isn’t activated automatically by the plugin. itsm_incident_write (Option E) is not part of the standard roles activated by this plugin and may represent a custom or additional role not included in the default ITSM package.

By activating itsm_incident_read and sn_incident_write, the ITSM Roles plugin ensures a clear division between users who only need to observe incidents and those who must manage and modify incident records. This distinction supports secure and efficient incident management workflows, making B and D the correct answers.

Question 9:

A customer wants the quick view panel, which appears when a Service Desk agent clicks the information icon next to the Caller's name, to show only specific fields. 

How should you configure the quick view to display only those fields?

A. Modify the sys_popup view for the user table
B. Modify the sys_quick view for the caller table
C. Modify the sys_popup view for the caller table
D. Modify the sys_quick view for the user table

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

In ServiceNow, different types of views control how data is presented in various UI elements, and it’s essential to modify the correct one based on the requirement.

The quick view is the small frame or panel that opens when an agent clicks on the information icon next to a field, such as the caller’s name. This quick view shows selected fields from the associated record in a concise format. The design and fields shown in this frame are controlled by the sys_quick view associated with the particular table.

Since the request is to customize what fields appear when the quick view for the Caller is invoked, you need to modify the sys_quick view tied to the caller table. This ensures only the desired fields like User name, Manager name, Email Address, and Employee ID appear in that quick view frame.

The sys_popup view, in contrast, defines which fields show in a popup window, a different UI element than the quick view. Therefore, modifying sys_popup views (options A and C) is irrelevant here because the requirement specifically targets the quick view frame, not pop-ups.

The distinction between the user table and caller table is crucial. The user table contains general user data, while the caller table contains information specifically about the person who is the requester or caller for incidents or requests. Since the quick view is triggered by clicking the caller’s name, the relevant view to adjust is the quick view on the caller table, not the user table (making option D incorrect).

Hence, the correct action is to update the sys_quick view for the caller table (Option B), which controls the fields shown in the quick view panel for callers. This approach aligns exactly with the customer’s need to limit the displayed fields when the Service Desk agent interacts with the caller's information.

Question 10:

Your customer has a knowledge base with articles aimed at both technical internal audiences and simple instructions for end users. Agents want to see which articles are visible to callers directly from the Incident form. 

Which feature will best fulfill this requirement?

A. Internal/External Highlighting
B. Search as User
C. Show User Viewable
D. User Only View

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In ServiceNow’s Knowledge Management, differentiating article visibility between internal staff and external or end users is critical for efficient support. When agents are working on incidents, they often need to quickly identify which knowledge base articles are visible to the callers or end users to provide accurate and relevant assistance.

The Show User Viewable feature is specifically designed to address this need. When enabled, it clearly marks or filters articles that are accessible to end users based on the article’s visibility settings and roles. This allows agents to instantly know which articles are viewable by callers without having to dig into permissions or test visibility manually.

Options such as Internal/External Highlighting (A) are not standard or defined features in ServiceNow and don’t directly provide the visibility cues needed on the Incident form.

The Search as User (B) function allows agents to simulate searching the knowledge base as an end user would see it, which is helpful for testing or verification but doesn’t provide an immediate, visual indication on the incident form itself about article visibility.

User Only View (D) implies restricting articles to specific users or groups but does not help agents identify which articles callers can access. It is more about limiting access rather than showing visibility status.

By using Show User Viewable (C), agents can quickly distinguish between articles intended for internal use and those available to end users, improving incident resolution speed and accuracy. This feature promotes transparency and efficiency by integrating visibility information directly into the incident interface, which aligns perfectly with the customer's requirement.