ServiceNow CIS-SIR Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

In the context of using Flow Designer for handling security incidents, what condition specifically triggers the activation of a playbook?

A. Defining the playbook actions to generate incident response tasks
B. Establishing condition-based triggers that align with the attributes of a security incident
C. Enabling a runbook property flag within the playbook configuration
D. Setting the incident’s Service Criticality level to High

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

In Flow Designer, which is frequently utilized in tools such as ServiceNow Security Operations, the activation of a playbook is governed by triggers that respond to predefined conditions within a security incident. The most fundamental mechanism that initiates a playbook is a trigger condition—a rule or set of rules that monitor incident attributes (e.g., category, severity, source, threat level) and launch the relevant playbook when these attributes match.

Option B is correct because trigger conditions are designed to listen for specific patterns or characteristics in incident data. When an incoming security incident meets those criteria—such as “Category = Malware” and “Impact = High”—the system automatically launches the associated playbook. This automation allows organizations to respond quickly and consistently, minimizing the delay in remediation.

Option A, defining actions to create tasks, is part of what happens after the playbook is triggered, not what initiates it. These actions might include isolating endpoints, notifying analysts, or assigning investigation tasks, but they only execute once the playbook is already running.

Option C, configuring the runbook property to “true,” may be used to designate a flow as a runbook for documentation or classification purposes. However, it doesn’t control when or whether the playbook starts. It’s more of a descriptive or configuration element.

Option D, setting Service Criticality to High, can be used as a condition within the trigger, but it is not a trigger by itself. A trigger would need to reference this field as part of its logic (e.g., “run when Service Criticality = High”), but merely setting this field doesn’t initiate anything unless it's part of a defined trigger condition.

In conclusion, the playbook activation in Flow Designer hinges on the trigger conditions that match specific attributes of the security incident, making Option B the accurate choice.

Question 2:

How do Calculator Groups function differently from individual calculators in automated workflows, and what is their main purpose?

A. To store descriptive metadata for each calculator
B. To enable users to manually select which calculator to execute
C. To define the rules that determine when each calculator should be used
D. To restrict execution so that only one calculator in the group runs at a time

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In platforms that support automation workflows, such as Flow Designer, Calculators are components responsible for evaluating specific logic—such as computing values or checking conditions. Calculator Groups, on the other hand, are used to organize and control the execution of multiple calculators, particularly when only one of them should be triggered in a given scenario.

Option D is the correct answer because Calculator Groups are explicitly designed to ensure that only one calculator within the group executes. This is particularly useful when multiple calculators are configured to perform similar functions but under different conditions. For instance, in security incident triage, different calculators might assess incident priority based on malware, phishing, or data leakage patterns. By grouping them, the system can evaluate all applicable calculators and execute only the first matching one to prevent logic conflicts or redundant calculations.

Option A, providing metadata, refers to auxiliary data like calculator names, descriptions, or creation dates. While metadata may help with identification and management, it is not the core function of Calculator Groups.

Option B, allowing the agent to choose a calculator, implies manual intervention, which defeats the purpose of automation. Calculator execution is typically governed by conditions and rules, not by user selection.

Option C, setting conditions for when calculators run, is indeed how calculators themselves operate, but it is not the function of the group. Conditions are assigned to each calculator individually. The group simply acts as a governing layer to ensure only one calculator is executed, even if multiple are eligible.

In summary, Calculator Groups are essential for orchestrating logic control in flows—ensuring deterministic and conflict-free calculator execution. By enabling only one calculator to run in a group, they promote clarity, avoid redundancy, and ensure workflow efficiency. This makes Option D the most accurate and practical answer.

Question 3:

Which of the following options best represents a general, observable occurrence within a system?

A. Incident
B. Log
C. Ticket
D. Alert
E. Event

Correct Answer: E

Explanation:

In the domain of IT systems, cybersecurity, and system administration, the term "event" is widely recognized as the most general and inclusive label for any observable action, activity, or occurrence that takes place in a system. Events are essentially raw data points that indicate something happened — whether benign or malicious, significant or trivial.

An event could include things like a user logging into a system, a file being accessed, an application error, or a hardware device going offline. These events are fundamental to IT monitoring because they provide the initial signals that something may require attention. Events may or may not indicate a problem, but they are the starting point for further analysis.

Let’s break down why Event is the most fitting term by comparing it to the other options:

• Option A (Incident): An incident refers to a disruption or threat to normal operations, such as a confirmed security breach or system failure. Incidents are specific and often serious, making them a subset of events — those that have escalated to require intervention.
  
  

• Option B (Log): A log is a record or collection of events, not the event itself. Logs store information about events for later analysis. Thus, while logs contain events, they are not equivalent to an event.

• Option C (Ticket): A ticket is typically generated in helpdesk or incident management systems to track a request, issue, or problem. Tickets are responses to events or incidents, used for tracking and resolution—not observations.

• Option D (Alert): An alert is a notification generated when a system recognizes that an event or group of events matches a certain threshold or pattern of concern. Like tickets, alerts are reactions to events, not the original action.

In summary, an event is the most fundamental and broad classification of any system activity or behavior. It is neutral and descriptive, not implying severity or requiring action by default. Because of its generality and foundational role in monitoring and diagnostics, E (Event) is the correct answer.

Question 4:

What are the main factors that determine the severity level assigned to a security incident?

A. The financial cost of responding to the breach
B. The incident’s impact, urgency, and priority
C. The length of time it takes to remediate the issue
D. The business value of the asset involved

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

When managing and responding to security incidents, one of the first classifications made is severity level, which helps determine how quickly and aggressively a response should be launched. The severity of a security incident is influenced primarily by impact, urgency, and priority — three interrelated dimensions that provide a full picture of the incident’s importance.

• Impact assesses the degree of harm an incident could or has already caused to systems, operations, data integrity, or business continuity. High-impact incidents might involve sensitive data exposure, operational shutdowns, or compromised critical systems.

• Urgency measures the speed at which a resolution must be applied. For instance, an incident affecting real-time operations or spreading rapidly across systems may be highly urgent, even if the initial impact is limited.
  Priority combines the two—impact and urgency—to determine response order. This is especially vital in environments where multiple incidents compete for attention, and decisions must be made about which to address first.

Let’s examine why the other options are less applicable:

• Option A (Cost of responding): Although costs are a concern for budgeting, they are not used to define severity. Severity helps shape the response plan, not the financial accounting of how resources are spent.

• Option C (Resolution time): The duration of response is a metric measured after the severity is already assigned. It is an outcome of the incident management process, not an input into the severity calculation.

• Option D (Business value of the asset): While important, asset value is considered within the "impact" factor. High-value assets typically raise the severity, but asset value alone doesn't dictate severity unless evaluated alongside urgency and broader business impact.

In conclusion, impact, urgency, and priority are the standard criteria used to determine how severe a security incident is. They help organizations triage issues, allocate resources, and respond appropriately based on business needs and risks. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Question 5:

Which method is used to calculate the Risk Score by aggregating all the weighted factors?

A. Arithmetic mean
B. Direct addition
C. Risk Score script include
D. Geometric mean

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Risk scoring is a vital component in cybersecurity and security operations platforms, used to determine the severity or priority level of an event or condition. The Risk Score provides a quantitative measure of how critical a security threat may be, helping teams to respond appropriately. In ServiceNow and similar platforms, this calculation is not done manually or through simple mathematical formulas—instead, it is dynamically executed by a Risk Score script include.

The Risk Score script include is a specialized script in ServiceNow that defines the logic for computing the final risk score. It takes into account multiple weighted criteria, such as impact, likelihood, vulnerability, exposure, and other factors that contribute to assessing the severity of a security incident or risk. The script combines these weights using a predefined algorithm that aligns with organizational risk models and policies.

Let’s examine why the other options are not accurate:

• Option A: Arithmetic mean is a basic statistical method where values are summed and divided by the number of elements. While this might seem straightforward, it assumes all factors carry equal weight. In real-world scenarios, each factor often has a different importance level, and using an arithmetic mean would oversimplify the risk score calculation.

• Option B: Direct addition refers to simply summing all the weighted values without normalization or logic to handle interdependencies or thresholds. This again lacks the nuance and dynamic capabilities required in a complex risk model. It can result in misleading scores, especially when multiple high-weighted risks exist.

• Option D: Geometric mean is occasionally used when values are multiplicative or when you want to reduce the impact of very high or low numbers. However, it's rarely suitable in the context of risk scoring for security incidents where weighted averages and prioritization based on rules are more applicable.

The Risk Score script include stands out because it encapsulates the custom logic, formulas, and adjustments needed to reflect an organization’s specific risk assessment strategy. It ensures consistency, automation, and real-time accuracy—key traits that make it the preferred method in professional-grade platforms.

Thus, Option C is correct because it refers to the script-driven mechanism used for calculating risk scores by integrating various weighted factors in a structured and scalable way.

Question 6:

Which two roles most commonly rely on Security Incident Response reports to gain valuable operational insights? (Select two)

A. Analysts
B. Vulnerability Managers
C. Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)
D. Problem Managers

Correct Answers: A and C

Explanation:

Security Incident Response (SIR) reports serve a critical function in modern cybersecurity frameworks. They provide a detailed record of security events, investigative steps, and outcomes, helping different teams understand how incidents are managed and resolved. While various roles might reference these reports, the two most crucial audiences for regular and detailed access are security analysts and the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO).

Analysts (Option A) are frontline defenders in the cybersecurity world. They use incident reports to investigate suspicious activity, understand the behavior of threats, and validate containment and remediation efforts. These reports include essential information such as timestamps, affected systems, severity levels, threat actor details, and remediation steps—all critical data that analysts use to perform their jobs effectively. They depend on this information not only for real-time response but also for future preparedness and threat pattern recognition.

The CISO (Option C) holds the strategic responsibility for managing an organization’s security posture. Incident response reports are a key input for high-level decision-making. They help the CISO evaluate the effectiveness of current policies, assess organizational risk, and determine whether regulatory compliance requirements are being met. Additionally, these reports inform executive briefings, board-level discussions, and audits.

Now let’s consider the other two roles:

• Vulnerability Managers (Option B) are primarily responsible for identifying and managing system weaknesses. While they might reference incident reports to understand if a known vulnerability was exploited, they typically focus on proactive mitigation rather than reactive response. They are not the main consumers of incident response documentation.

• Problem Managers (Option D) work on root cause analysis and prevention of recurring issues. They may refer to incident reports occasionally, especially for repeated security events, but their main focus lies in long-term stability, not immediate threat resolution.

In summary, analysts and the CISO are the primary roles that heavily depend on Security Incident Response reports. Analysts require them for tactical response and investigation, while CISOs use them for strategic oversight and compliance management.

Question 7:

Which three steps must be completed to ensure a new playbook appears in the 'Selected Playbook' dropdown list within a security incident response workflow? (Choose three)

A. Apply the tag TLP: GREEN to the relevant playbook
B. Access and review the contents of the sys_hub_flow.list table
C. Locate the newly created playbook using Flow Designer’s search function
D. Assign the sir_playbook tag to the new playbook
E. Navigate to the sys_playbook_flow.list table to register the playbook

Correct Answers: B, D, E

Explanation:

To successfully integrate a newly created playbook into the Selected Playbook dropdown list in a Security Incident Response (SIR) workflow, specific configuration actions must be taken within ServiceNow. These actions ensure that the playbook is properly recognized by the system and associated with the correct context for incident handling.

Let’s review each correct step:

• Option B (Access sys_hub_flow.list) is essential because this table lists all the system flows created or used within Flow Designer. The new playbook must be visible here, as this ensures the flow engine recognizes it as an eligible automation process that can be triggered during incident response. It is the foundational step in making the playbook visible system-wide.

• Option D (Add sir_playbook tag) is critical. By tagging the playbook with sir_playbook, you're categorizing it for Security Incident Response usage. This tagging informs the system that the playbook is intended for selection in SIR workflows and filters it accordingly when generating the list of available playbooks.

• Option E (Use sys_playbook_flow.list) involves linking the playbook with specific workflow contexts. This table manages the playbook flows tied to particular use cases, and registering your playbook here ensures it is associated with actionable triggers and can be executed during an incident lifecycle.

Now let's evaluate the incorrect choices:

• Option A (TLP: GREEN tag) is unrelated to making a playbook selectable. This tag refers to Traffic Light Protocol classification for information sensitivity and sharing, not system configuration or playbook registration.

• Option C (Searching in Flow Designer) may help during the creation or validation phase, but simply locating the playbook via Flow Designer does not register it into the Selected Playbook list. Configuration in the appropriate tables and tagging is still required.

Thus, the correct actions—B, D, and E—are essential for registering and displaying the playbook within the appropriate incident response UI elements.

Question 8:

Which foundational activity, when conducted at the baseline maturity level, significantly improves response effectiveness and boosts an organization's overall security resilience?

A. Post-Incident Review
B. Rapid Eradication
C. Containing the Incident
D. Analyzing the Incident

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Among various security response activities, the Post-Incident Review (PIR) plays a uniquely strategic role in improving long-term process maturity and enhancing an organization’s overall security posture. This activity typically occurs after the resolution of a security incident and serves as a structured opportunity to examine what happened, what actions were taken, and what improvements are needed for the future.

The PIR enables the organization to learn from past events and implement changes that reduce risk exposure going forward. It fosters a culture of continuous improvement, accountability, and preparedness, all of which are critical traits of a mature incident response program.

Let’s break down the key components of a Post-Incident Review:

• Performance Evaluation: Teams assess the efficiency and effectiveness of response processes, communication, containment strategies, and eradication efforts.

• Root Cause Analysis: Understanding the origin of the breach or incident helps in preventing future recurrences.

• Documentation of Lessons Learned: A formal record is created, offering recommendations, identifying gaps, and informing updates to policies, training, and tools.

• Process Refinement: Feedback from the PIR leads to enhancements in playbooks, detection capabilities, and escalation procedures.

Now, evaluating the other options:

• Option B (Rapid Eradication) refers to the quick removal of malicious elements from an environment. While essential during an active incident, it is a tactical action, not a strategic improvement activity. It does not provide insight into systemic process weaknesses or areas for maturity development.

• Option C (Incident Containment) is aimed at limiting damage by isolating affected systems. Like eradication, it is an immediate response measure, not a reflective or improvement-oriented practice.

• Option D (Incident Analysis) is part of the response workflow where technical aspects of the event are examined. While important for understanding the incident in real time, it lacks the forward-looking strategic nature of a PIR.

In summary, Post-Incident Reviews are vital for translating reactive actions into proactive improvements. By institutionalizing PIRs, organizations can build more resilient security programs, improve future response times, and reduce the impact of subsequent incidents—making Option A the most effective improvement opportunity at the baseline level.

Question 9:

What is the fastest way for a security incident administrator to remove an unwanted widget from the Security Incident Catalog interface?

A. Click the “X” button at the widget’s top-right corner
B. Submit a request to the system administrator
C. Widgets cannot be removed once added
D. Edit the widget via the Catalog Definition record

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In user interface design for IT service management platforms, such as those used in security incident response, widgets serve as modular display components that present key information or enable quick interaction. Over time, a dashboard or catalog view can become cluttered with unnecessary or outdated widgets, so it’s essential for administrators to have the flexibility to tailor their interfaces.

The most immediate and intuitive method for removing a widget is clicking the “X” icon at the top-right corner of the widget. This is a common user interface feature provided in platforms like ServiceNow, where administrators or users can customize their views based on preferences or relevance. This action removes the widget only from the user's individual interface, not system-wide, thus maintaining overall system integrity while improving personal productivity.

Let’s review the incorrect options:

• B. Submit a request to the system administrator:
  While contacting the system administrator might be necessary for permanent removal of a widget from the entire system, it is not the fastest or most efficient solution for simply hiding or removing a widget from a personal view. This process could also introduce delays and is unnecessary in most self-service platforms.

• C. Widgets cannot be removed once added:
  This is incorrect. Most modern ITSM and security platforms are designed with customizable interfaces. Users, especially those with administrative rights, can easily add or remove widgets as needed to maintain an efficient workspace.

• D. Edit via Catalog Definition record:
  This method pertains to backend configuration, which is more suited for creating, modifying, or deleting widgets system-wide. While useful for design and maintenance, it's far more complex and time-consuming for an individual trying to remove a single widget.

In conclusion, Option A is the correct and most efficient approach. Clicking the "X" offers a quick, user-friendly way for administrators to manage their personal view of the Security Incident Catalog, ensuring a cleaner and more relevant interface without system-wide disruption.

Question 10:

Which feature allows you to collect and view the list of active processes running on a specific host or endpoint identified as a Configuration Item (CI)?

A. Get Network Statistics
B. Isolate Host
C. Get Running Processes
D. Publish Watchlist
E. Block Action
F. Sightings Search

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

When managing security incidents or conducting endpoint investigations, knowing which processes are actively running on a host or Configuration Item (CI) is crucial. The “Get Running Processes” capability is specifically designed to retrieve a real-time snapshot of all active processes on a given endpoint.

This function enables analysts and security administrators to monitor activities, detect suspicious or malicious processes, and determine if unauthorized software is operating on the system. For example, if an incident suggests malware presence, retrieving running processes helps in quickly identifying rogue binaries or scripts.

Let’s examine the alternatives to understand why they are incorrect:

• A. Get Network Statistics:
  This tool is used to analyze network usage, such as data transfer rates, connection endpoints, or active ports. While it provides insight into external communications, it does not give visibility into local process activity, which is what’s required in this scenario.

• B. Isolate Host:
  This is a containment action that removes the affected host from the network to prevent further damage or data exfiltration. While effective in limiting threat spread, it doesn’t provide diagnostic data like a process list.

• D. Publish Watchlist:
  This capability lets analysts define and distribute a set of indicators to monitor, such as file hashes or IPs. Although helpful for alerting and correlation, it does not perform real-time data retrieval from endpoints.

• E. Block Action: This feature is used to block specific behaviors or activities, such as terminating a connection or denying access to resources. It’s reactive, not investigative, and does not collect process-level data.

• F. Sightings Search:
  This function queries whether known malicious indicators (e.g., hashes, IPs) have been observed across various systems. It’s part of a threat-hunting toolkit but doesn’t retrieve an actual process list from a specific machine.

Therefore, Option C is the correct answer, as “Get Running Processes” provides the direct and actionable intelligence needed for incident responders to investigate a host’s behavior at the process level.