ISC CISSP-ISSEP Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

What level within the Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework (FITSAF) indicates that security procedures and controls have been actively tested and reviewed?

A. Level 4
B. Level 5
C. Level 1
D. Level 2
E. Level 3

Correct answer: E

Explanation:

The Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework (FITSAF) is a structured method used primarily by federal agencies to evaluate the security status of their information systems. It divides security maturity into different levels, each representing how well security controls are established, implemented, and maintained. Understanding what each level represents is key to selecting the correct answer.

At Level 1, the focus is on defining security policies and procedures, but these controls are generally not yet applied or tested. It’s essentially a foundational stage where documentation exists, but practical enforcement is minimal. Moving up to Level 2, controls have been implemented operationally but often lack thorough testing or review, meaning the security posture is still somewhat immature.

Level 3 is where things become more proactive: at this level, security controls and procedures are not only in place but are also actively tested and reviewed. This testing ensures that the controls work as intended and helps identify weaknesses or gaps. This level reflects an important stage where security becomes measurable and validated through assessments.

Levels 4 and 5 represent even more advanced stages. Level 4 includes continuous monitoring and automated reviews to ensure ongoing compliance and effectiveness. Level 5 signifies full integration of security into organizational processes with continuous improvement mechanisms.

Since the question specifically asks for the stage where procedures and controls are tested and reviewed, Level 3 is the correct choice, as it marks the transition from implementation to active validation of security controls. This ensures that policies are not only theoretical but practically effective.

Question 2:

Which of the following security tools is designed specifically to monitor computer networks and systems to detect unauthorized access or security breaches?

A. IPS
B. IDS
C. ASA
D. EAP

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

The correct answer is IDS, which stands for Intrusion Detection System. IDS technology plays a crucial role in cybersecurity by continuously monitoring network or system activities to detect suspicious or malicious behavior that could indicate a security breach or attack. The primary function of an IDS is to analyze traffic patterns, system logs, and other indicators to identify potential threats and generate alerts for security personnel.

An IDS is essentially a monitoring tool — it does not block or prevent attacks directly but helps security teams become aware of potential problems as soon as possible so they can respond promptly. It is especially useful in detecting anomalies such as unauthorized access attempts, malware infections, or policy violations.

Other options clarify why they are not correct:

• IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) not only detects threats like an IDS but also automatically takes action to block or prevent attacks in real time, offering a more active defense.

• ASA (Adaptive Security Appliance) refers to a security device, often a firewall, that integrates several security features including VPN support and intrusion prevention, but its primary function is broader than just detection.

• EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol) is a framework used for authentication in network connections, especially wireless networks. It deals with verifying identity, not detecting breaches.

Thus, the IDS stands out as the tool specifically focused on detecting and alerting about security breaches, making it the best answer for the question.

Question 3:

Which type of firewall improves packet security by keeping track of the connection’s state at both the network and session layers while filtering data packets?

A. Stateless packet filter firewall
B. PIX firewall
C. Stateful packet filter firewall
D. Virtual firewall

Answer: C

Explanation:

A stateful packet filter firewall (option C) is designed to provide enhanced security by monitoring the state of active network connections. Unlike simpler firewalls that inspect packets individually, this type of firewall keeps track of ongoing communication sessions. It maintains context about the state of each connection at different layers of the OSI model — primarily at the network layer (Layer 3) and the session layer (Layer 5). This means it can determine whether an incoming packet is part of an established, valid session or an unsolicited attempt to connect.

By "remembering" the connection state, the stateful firewall ensures that only packets that belong to legitimate, previously established connections are allowed to pass. This ability helps prevent many common network attacks that attempt to exploit open ports or spoofed packets because the firewall will reject packets that do not conform to the expected session behavior.

In contrast, a stateless packet filter firewall (option A) simply checks each packet against predefined rules without keeping track of previous packets or connection states. This approach is less secure because it cannot differentiate between legitimate session traffic and potentially harmful unsolicited packets.

The PIX firewall (option B) is a specific Cisco product that operates as a stateful firewall but the question refers to the general concept rather than a specific brand or model. Meanwhile, a virtual firewall (option D) refers to a firewall implemented within a virtualized environment and does not specifically imply stateful tracking.

Therefore, the best answer is the stateful packet filter firewall, as it specifically provides increased security through connection state awareness.

Question 4:

Which U.S. federal legislation is primarily focused on preventing the theft of computer data and unauthorized computer access?

A. Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA)
B. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA)
C. Government Information Security Reform Act (GISRA)
D. Computer Security Act

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA) (option B) is the key federal law specifically designed to address computer-related crimes, particularly those involving unauthorized access and theft of computer data. It criminalizes hacking, data theft, fraud, and other offenses involving computers, making it the most relevant statute for protecting data against theft and misuse.

To clarify the other options:

• The Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA) (option A) establishes a framework for securing government information systems but is more about management policies and procedures rather than criminalizing data theft. FISMA focuses on ensuring federal agencies properly protect their information systems, rather than directly preventing theft by individuals.

• The Government Information Security Reform Act (GISRA) (option C) is closely related to FISMA, enhancing federal cybersecurity policies but again is focused on securing government systems, not specifically on preventing computer data theft.

• The Computer Security Act (option D) was an earlier legislative attempt to improve security in federal computer systems but has since been superseded by more comprehensive laws like FISMA and CFAA. It does not focus explicitly on criminal penalties for data theft.

In summary, the CFAA stands out as the law specifically crafted to combat computer fraud and unauthorized access, making it the correct choice for protecting computer data from theft and abuse.

Question 5:

Which term signifies that the software has achieved the required quality standards and is ready for wide distribution, either digitally or via physical media?

A. ATM
B. RTM
C. CRO
D. DAA

Answer: B

Explanation:

The correct term for software that has passed all necessary quality checks and is prepared for mass distribution is RTM, which stands for Release to Manufacturing. This status confirms that the software is stable, finalized, and suitable for delivery either through electronic downloads or physical formats such as DVDs, USB drives, or other media. RTM is a crucial milestone in the software development lifecycle because it signals the completion of development and testing phases, allowing the product to move forward to production and distribution stages.

Let’s briefly clarify the other options:

• ATM (Automated Teller Machine) refers to banking machines that allow customers to perform financial transactions independently and is unrelated to software release processes.

• CRO (Conversion Rate Optimization) is a marketing term aimed at increasing the percentage of users who perform a desired action on a website, such as purchasing or signing up. This concept has no connection to software release or quality levels.

• DAA (Digital Access Assistance) involves tools or services designed to make digital content accessible to people with disabilities, and it does not refer to any software release status.

In summary, RTM is the accepted industry term for indicating that a software product has met quality requirements and is officially ready for distribution, making option B the right answer.

Question 6:

Within your change management plan, you explain configuration management processes related to scope changes to a junior project manager. 

Which of the following is NOT considered a typical configuration management activity?

A. Configuration Item Costing
B. Configuration Identification
C. Configuration Verification and Auditing
D. Configuration Status Accounting

Answer: A

Explanation:

Configuration management is a key project management process aimed at ensuring all project components — known as configuration items (CIs) — are properly identified, documented, and controlled throughout the project. This helps maintain consistency and traceability of the project’s scope and deliverables, especially when changes occur.

To break down the options:

• Configuration Identification involves naming and defining all project components so they can be tracked correctly. This is essential for managing scope and ensuring everyone understands what items are included in the project.

• Configuration Verification and Auditing refers to checking and confirming that all configuration items meet the required standards and specifications. Audits ensure the integrity of the project’s components and that changes are implemented correctly.

• Configuration Status Accounting tracks and records the history and current state of configuration items, including any modifications made. This accounting provides visibility into what changes have occurred and helps maintain version control.

On the other hand, Configuration Item Costing focuses on the financial aspect of project items, such as estimating or tracking costs associated with specific components. While important for overall project management and budgeting, costing is not part of configuration management’s core responsibilities, which are primarily concerned with identification, control, verification, and status tracking of configuration items.

Therefore, since Configuration Item Costing is not traditionally a configuration management activity, option A is the correct answer.

Question 7:

Who is responsible for initiating the Certification and Accreditation (C&A) process for an information system?

A. Authorizing Official
B. Information System Owner
C. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
D. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Certification and Accreditation (C&A) process, now often called Assessment and Authorization (A&A) in many organizations, is a structured procedure that ensures an information system meets established security requirements before it is authorized to operate. The key figure who initiates this process is the Information System Owner.

The Information System Owner holds accountability for the management, operation, and security of a specific information system. Because they have direct responsibility for the system’s overall performance and compliance, they are the ones who start the C&A/A&A process. This includes coordinating security assessments, ensuring compliance with applicable standards, and preparing the system for official authorization.

The Authorizing Official (AO), on the other hand, does not start the process but is responsible for granting the formal approval to operate the system after the C&A activities are complete. Their role is pivotal but comes after the system has been assessed.

The Chief Information Officer (CIO) oversees the organization's overall IT strategy and governance but is not directly involved in the operational-level initiation of the C&A process for individual systems. Their function is more high-level, ensuring policies and frameworks are in place.

Similarly, the Chief Risk Officer (CRO) is concerned with managing the organization's broader risk strategy. Although the CRO may be consulted regarding risks identified during the C&A process, they do not initiate it.

In summary, because the Information System Owner manages the system directly and ensures its compliance and readiness, they are the professional who initiates the Certification and Accreditation process, making B the correct answer.

Question 8:

Which security solution consists of layered security services designed to tackle communication and data security challenges in emerging Internet and intranet applications?

A. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
B. Common Data Security Architecture (CDSA)
C. File Encryptors
D. Application Program Interface (API)

Answer: B

Explanation:

The question focuses on a security control framework that provides multiple layers of protection aimed at addressing communication and data security issues, specifically within the context of new Internet and intranet applications.

Starting with Internet Protocol Security (IPSec), it is a widely used protocol suite that secures IP communications by authenticating and encrypting each IP packet. While IPSec is effective for securing data in transit at the network layer, it is primarily focused on protecting IP traffic and doesn’t offer a broad set of layered security services for application-level challenges. Hence, it doesn't fully match the description in the question.

Common Data Security Architecture (CDSA), however, is a comprehensive framework that provides a layered approach to security. It addresses a broad spectrum of data protection requirements, including secure communications, authentication, and encryption services tailored for distributed and networked applications. CDSA was specifically designed to solve emerging security challenges in Internet and intranet environments, offering developers a standardized way to incorporate multiple security controls seamlessly. This makes CDSA the best fit for the described scenario.

File Encryptors are specialized tools designed to protect data at rest by encrypting individual files. Although vital for securing stored information, they do not provide an overarching framework that addresses communication security or multiple layered services.

An Application Program Interface (API) enables software applications to interact but is not inherently a security control. While APIs can be secured and used within security architectures, they themselves do not form a layered security service framework.

Therefore, the Common Data Security Architecture (CDSA) is the correct answer because it offers layered security services that comprehensively address communication and data security challenges in modern networked application environments.

Question 9:

Which protocol is primarily used to create a secure remote terminal connection to manage a network device?

A. WEP
B. SMTP
C. SSH
D. IPSec

Answer: C

Explanation:

The protocol widely used to establish a secure terminal session to remotely access and manage network devices is SSH (Secure Shell). SSH is a cryptographic protocol designed to provide secure communication over potentially unsecured networks like the internet. It enables encrypted connections between a client (the user) and a server (the remote device), ensuring confidentiality and integrity of the transmitted data.

When a network administrator needs to remotely configure a router, switch, or server, SSH allows them to do so without exposing sensitive information such as passwords or commands to interception. The encryption prevents eavesdropping, tampering, or man-in-the-middle attacks, which makes SSH the standard choice for secure remote management.

Now, why are the other options incorrect?

• WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) is an outdated encryption method designed for wireless networks. It aims to secure Wi-Fi traffic but does not provide terminal access or secure remote management functionality.

• SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending emails and has no role in establishing remote terminal sessions or securing device management.

• IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) is a suite of protocols that secures IP packets for network layer encryption, commonly used for VPNs. While it secures traffic between networks or devices, it is not specifically used to establish interactive, secure terminal connections like SSH.

In summary, SSH is tailored specifically for secure remote terminal access, making it the appropriate protocol for managing remote devices securely.

Question 10:

Which component in Registration Task 4 specifies the external interfaces of a system, including their purposes and how they relate to the system itself?

A. System firmware
B. System software
C. System interface
D. System hardware

Answer: C

Explanation:

Within system design or registration documentation, the term System interface refers to the part that explicitly defines the external points of interaction between a system and other systems or components. This includes identifying each external interface, explaining the purpose it serves, and detailing how that interface connects and interacts with the system. Essentially, it provides a blueprint of how data, signals, or commands flow into and out of the system, ensuring smooth integration and communication with outside entities.

Let's examine why the other options do not fit:

• System firmware is low-level software embedded in hardware devices. It controls hardware functions but does not describe external interface specifications or their relationships.

• System software encompasses operating systems and other software that run on the system, facilitating overall operations. While vital, it does not define the external interfaces or their purposes.

• System hardware consists of the physical parts of the system, such as processors, memory, or input/output devices. While hardware enables interfaces, it does not explain their logical purpose or relational context.

Thus, the System interface element is the correct choice because it focuses precisely on the definition and role of external connections and how the system interacts with its environment. This clarity is essential for successful integration, testing, and operation within broader ecosystems.