ISC CISSP-ISSMP Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Which of the following options correctly highlight key attributes of the HTTPS protocol? Choose two that apply.

A. It communicates over TCP port 80 by default.
B. It is the protocol shown in the browser when connecting securely to a website.
C. It typically uses TCP port 443 for data transmission.
D. It is intended specifically for securing communications between internal database servers.

Correct Answers: B and C

Explanation:

HTTPS, which stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure, is the encrypted version of HTTP and is used to establish secure communications between a user's browser and a web server. It leverages Transport Layer Security (TLS) or the now-deprecated Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) to ensure that the data exchanged cannot be intercepted, tampered with, or read by unauthorized parties. HTTPS is foundational for modern web security, particularly in e-commerce, banking, and any site requiring personal information.

Let’s examine each option:

A. This is incorrect. HTTPS does not use TCP port 80. That port is reserved for regular HTTP, which transmits information in plaintext and is therefore vulnerable to interception and eavesdropping. HTTPS, on the other hand, requires a secure transport and operates on TCP port 443.

B. This is correct. When users visit a secure website, the browser typically displays “https://” at the start of the URL, indicating that the site is using HTTPS. Most modern browsers also show a padlock icon, confirming the connection is encrypted and the site's identity has been verified by a certificate authority.

C. This is correct. The standard port for HTTPS communication is TCP port 443. This distinction from HTTP’s port 80 helps separate secure and non-secure web traffic. Port 443 is a well-known port recognized globally for transmitting encrypted web content.

D. This is incorrect. While HTTPS secures web-based communications, it is not intended specifically for securing internal database server traffic. Database systems use their own security protocols (like MySQL with TLS, or Oracle with SSL) to ensure encrypted communication between applications and database servers. HTTPS is not typically employed in those contexts.

In conclusion, B and C best describe the core attributes of HTTPS. It is identified through “https://” in the browser's address bar and relies on TCP port 443 for encrypted web traffic, ensuring secure interactions between users and web services.

Question 2:

Which of the following practices is legally sanctioned and typically performed by law enforcement or government agencies?

A. Phishing
B. Wiretapping
C. SMB signing
D. Spoofing

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The correct answer is wiretapping, which refers to the interception of telephone or electronic communications by authorized agencies, typically for legal investigations. Wiretapping is a powerful investigative tool that must be carried out under strict legal supervision, often requiring a court-issued warrant or legal authorization. It is used to gather evidence in cases involving terrorism, organized crime, drug trafficking, and other high-level criminal activities.

Law enforcement agencies such as the FBI or CIA in the United States, or equivalent intelligence bodies in other countries, may perform wiretapping under frameworks like the Wiretap Act, FISA (Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act), or Patriot Act. These regulations impose limits and oversight to prevent abuse and protect citizens’ privacy.

Now, let’s break down the other options:

A. Phishing – This is an illegal and unethical practice used by cybercriminals. It involves sending fraudulent emails or messages pretending to be from trusted entities to trick users into revealing sensitive information. Government agencies never engage in phishing as part of legitimate investigative procedures.

C. SMB Signing – This stands for Server Message Block signing, a security mechanism that validates the authenticity of communication over SMB protocol, commonly used for file sharing in networks. This is a technical feature used by IT administrators and has nothing to do with surveillance or law enforcement activities.

D. Spoofing – Like phishing, spoofing is a type of cyberattack where an attacker disguises their identity (for example, faking email addresses or IPs) to deceive users or systems. It is not used by authorized entities, and is considered illegal when used maliciously.

Wiretapping, by contrast, is recognized and regulated under national laws and is often critical in criminal investigations. While it does raise ethical debates, particularly regarding privacy, it remains a legitimate surveillance method when conducted under legal oversight.

Therefore, B is the only correct answer that reflects an activity conducted by authorized law enforcement or government bodies within a legal framework.

Question 3:

John, the security lead at Soft Tech Inc., is helping draft a disaster recovery plan. A team member asks for the most cost-effective and practical way to find overlaps or issues in the plan before committing to full-scale testing. 

What type of DRP test should John suggest?

A. Full-scale exercise
B. Walk-through drill
C. Evacuation drill
D. Structured walk-through test

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

When developing a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP), it's essential to begin with a method that is both economical and effective at uncovering weaknesses or redundancies. The structured walk-through test (also known as a tabletop exercise) fits this purpose best. In this approach, stakeholders from different departments gather to methodically review each step of the DRP. Each person walks through their role in the event of a disaster, ensuring all processes are understood and properly aligned.

This process helps reveal gaps, inconsistencies, or overlapping responsibilities that could cause confusion or delays during an actual disaster. It’s also a chance to validate dependencies between teams—like ensuring the backup team’s start time aligns with when data recovery is supposed to occur. Since this test is document-based and does not involve real infrastructure or live responses, it is significantly less expensive and less disruptive than full-blown simulations.

Option A, the full-scale exercise, is the most exhaustive and realistic test. It involves simulating an actual disaster, engaging staff, systems, and recovery sites. Although valuable, it's also resource-heavy, time-consuming, and should only be done once the DRP has already been fine-tuned through earlier testing like structured walk-throughs.

Option B, a walk-through drill, is a simpler and more informal discussion of the recovery plan. While useful, it lacks the rigorous step-by-step validation that a structured walk-through provides. It may not catch issues across functional boundaries as effectively.

Option C, an evacuation drill, focuses purely on personnel safety and physical evacuation protocols. Though important, it does not review procedural or system-level recovery steps, and is unrelated to the written and technical components of the DRP.

In summary, the structured walk-through test is the most appropriate first step in DRP validation. It provides a balance of low cost, high visibility, and comprehensive analysis, making it ideal for identifying issues early and preparing for more detailed testing in the future.

Question 4:

Which term best describes the approach where an organization uses benchmarks and measurable indicators to evaluate the success of its security programs and align its investments with desired outcomes?

A. Information sharing
B. Ethics
C. Performance measurement
D. Risk management

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Performance measurement is the process of setting benchmarks, tracking key indicators, and analyzing results to determine how effectively an organization is achieving its security goals. In enterprise and cybersecurity settings, performance measurement plays a pivotal role in aligning security efforts with strategic business objectives.

This method involves defining specific metrics or Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) that reflect the desired outcomes of a security program. For instance, these benchmarks might include reducing the number of successful cyberattacks, improving incident response time, achieving compliance with security standards, or increasing employee training participation rates.

By quantifying performance, organizations can monitor progress, pinpoint weaknesses, and determine whether security investments—such as in personnel, tools, or training—are generating the expected benefits. It also allows leadership to make informed decisions on resource allocation, technology upgrades, or policy changes, ensuring that the security strategy remains aligned with evolving threats and business priorities.

Option A, information sharing, refers to the distribution of threat intelligence and incident data between internal teams or with external partners. While important for enhancing threat detection and situational awareness, it is not inherently a tool for evaluating organizational success or tracking metrics.

Option B, ethics, refers to the moral principles guiding behavior and decisions. While ethics influence security culture and individual conduct, they do not provide measurable outputs for assessing the effectiveness of a security program.

Option D, risk management, is a broader process that focuses on identifying, assessing, and mitigating threats to organizational assets. While risk management decisions are often informed by performance metrics, it is not in itself the mechanism used to track and evaluate performance outcomes.

To summarize, performance measurement is the most accurate term when referring to the systematic assessment of how well security initiatives are working, based on measurable benchmarks. It is essential for continuous improvement, ensuring accountability, and demonstrating the value of security efforts to stakeholders.

Question 5:

Mark is organizing a cybersecurity training program at SoftTech Inc. To enhance the program's success, he takes into account employees’ computer usage habits, their interests, how open they are to training, the best ways to gain their support, and who within the company might support the initiative. 

Which activity is Mark performing?

A. Separation of duties
B. Stunned owl syndrome
C. Audience participation
D. Audience segmentation

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Mark is conducting a thoughtful and strategic analysis of the workforce to ensure the cybersecurity training program is tailored for success. This kind of approach is best described by the concept of audience segmentation, which involves categorizing the intended audience into distinct groups based on relevant characteristics like technical skill level, role, attitude toward training, or specific departmental responsibilities. The objective is to customize content and delivery to better align with each group's unique needs and motivations.

For example, a company’s IT department might benefit from in-depth discussions on phishing tactics or insider threats, while administrative staff may need more general awareness training focused on password hygiene or safe browsing habits. By dividing the audience this way, Mark ensures the material remains relevant, engaging, and effective, which significantly increases user participation, retention, and behavioral change.

Mark’s approach includes:

• Assessing current computer usage to determine digital proficiency.

• Identifying what motivates different groups, aligning training goals with their interests.

• Evaluating the audience’s openness to the training, which informs delivery methods.

• Planning strategies to increase buy-in, such as incentives or managerial support.

• Recognizing internal allies who can influence others positively (e.g., department heads or respected peers).

Option A, separation of duties, refers to the security principle of dividing responsibilities among different individuals to reduce risk and fraud. Though essential in governance, it is unrelated to training program design.

Option B, stunned owl syndrome, is an informal term describing a confused or overwhelmed audience. While this can be a side effect of poorly tailored training, it’s not an intentional strategy or method used in planning.

Option C, audience participation, is a valuable teaching technique that promotes interactivity during sessions, but it does not encompass the strategic analysis and grouping of users, which defines segmentation.

In conclusion, audience segmentation allows Mark to design a security awareness program that addresses different learning styles, responsibilities, and interest levels. This approach increases both the effectiveness of the training and the likelihood of widespread adoption throughout the company.

Question 6:

Which stage of business continuity planning is responsible for creating and documenting strategies, putting them into action, conducting testing, and ensuring the plan remains current over time?

A. Business continuity plan development
B. Business impact assessment
C. Scope and plan initiation
D. Plan approval and implementation

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The business continuity plan development phase is the core component of the business continuity planning (BCP) lifecycle. It is during this stage that a company crafts a detailed and actionable plan to respond to potential disruptions. This plan includes defining strategies, writing formal documentation, putting plans into effect, conducting tests, and ensuring long-term maintenance.

After foundational assessments like the business impact assessment (BIA) and risk evaluations have identified the organization’s most critical functions, the development phase begins. It includes the creation of specific procedures for continuity, including how to restore operations, communicate during crises, and protect essential data and infrastructure.

Key activities in this phase include:

• Documenting strategies for recovery, including roles, responsibilities, resources, and timelines.

• Implementing the plan, such as training teams and putting recovery teams and resources in place.

• Testing the plan through tabletop exercises, simulations, or live drills to uncover gaps and weaknesses.

• Maintaining and updating the plan as the organization evolves—ensuring relevance with new technologies, processes, and organizational changes.

Option B, business impact assessment, is an earlier phase. It evaluates the consequences of disruptions and identifies essential operations, but it stops short of strategy implementation or testing.

Option C, scope and plan initiation, is the BCP’s starting point. It defines the scope, goals, planning team, and executive buy-in, but it doesn't involve plan creation or execution.

Option D, plan approval and implementation, refers to executive endorsement and perhaps the rollout of the plan, but not the full lifecycle activities such as detailed development, testing, and ongoing updates.

In summary, business continuity plan development is the phase that brings all planning elements together into a comprehensive, testable, and sustainable strategy, ensuring the organization is prepared to handle disruptive events effectively.

Question 7:

In legal proceedings, which form of evidence is generally considered the most dependable and authoritative?

A. A duplicate copy of the original document
B. Testimony based on a person’s direct observation
C. The original, unaltered document itself
D. A digital record generated by a computer system

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In courtrooms and legal environments, the original document is widely regarded as the most reliable and persuasive form of evidence, particularly when documentary proof is required. This concept is anchored in the "best evidence rule", a foundational principle in evidence law. The best evidence rule stipulates that when a party wishes to prove the content of a document, the original document must be presented if it is available. This requirement exists to safeguard the authenticity of the information being reviewed and to reduce the likelihood of fraud, misinterpretation, or tampering.

Using the original ensures that the document being examined is the most accurate and trustworthy representation of the information. Courts prefer this form of evidence because it allows judges and juries to assess the actual document rather than relying on interpretations, summaries, or possibly altered versions. If the original cannot be produced—due to loss, destruction, or other legitimate reasons—a copy or secondary form of evidence may be permitted, but only if its authenticity can be reasonably verified and it is clear that its absence was not due to intentional destruction.

Option A, a copy of the original, is considered secondary evidence. Although admissible in some circumstances, such copies are inherently less credible due to the possibility of unintentional errors or intentional manipulation.

Option B, evidence gathered through the senses of a witness (such as seeing or hearing something), is categorized as direct evidence. While this type of evidence can be compelling and is admissible in many cases, it is subject to human error, bias, and memory faults. It does not fall under the "best evidence" standard in the context of documentary accuracy.

Option D, a computer-generated record, may be admissible and sometimes even considered original in digital form (e.g., logs, transaction records), especially with proper validation. However, unless it is the primary source file or native format, it typically does not meet the legal bar set by the best evidence rule for hard-copy documents.

Ultimately, the original document carries the highest evidentiary weight in legal disputes involving written records.

Question 8:

Who is primarily accountable for maintaining the security principles of confidentiality, integrity, and availability as outlined in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A. The individual managing service performance metrics and SLA compliance
B. The person overseeing asset configurations and documentation
C. The professional in charge of enforcing IT security protocols
D. The authority managing approvals and implementation of IT changes

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The IT Security Manager is the individual chiefly responsible for ensuring that confidentiality, integrity, and availability—collectively known as the CIA triad—are consistently upheld across all IT services. These three principles form the cornerstone of information security and are critical for meeting service expectations outlined in a Service Level Agreement (SLA). The SLA defines the agreed-upon service parameters, including performance targets and security standards that must be maintained throughout the service lifecycle.

Let’s break down the CIA model:

• Confidentiality ensures that sensitive information is accessible only to those with appropriate authorization.

• Integrity protects data from unauthorized alteration, ensuring its accuracy and reliability.

• Availability guarantees that systems and data are accessible when needed by authorized users.

The IT Security Manager actively enforces policies and procedures to uphold these principles. Their responsibilities include implementing security frameworks, monitoring systems for vulnerabilities, conducting risk assessments, and responding to security breaches or threats. They may also coordinate with other IT functions to ensure that systems remain compliant with both internal policies and regulatory requirements.

Now, let’s examine why the other roles are not the best fit for this responsibility:

Option A, the Service Level Manager, focuses primarily on defining, negotiating, and managing SLAs to ensure that the delivered services meet agreed service quality levels. While they monitor performance, they do not directly oversee or enforce security policies.

Option B, the Configuration Manager, is responsible for tracking and managing configuration items (CIs) and their relationships. Their role supports the infrastructure but is not centered on ensuring the security of services.

Option D, the Change Manager, governs how changes are introduced into the IT environment to minimize disruption. They ensure that risk assessments are conducted, but their role is procedural rather than protective when it comes to security measures.

Therefore, for maintaining the CIA principles and aligning them with SLA requirements, the IT Security Manager is the correct and most appropriate role.

Question 9:

Which plan is specifically designed to detail how a business should restart essential functions right after a major disruption like a natural disaster or cyberattack?

A. Disaster recovery plan
B. Business continuity plan
C. Continuity of operation plan
D. Business recovery plan

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The business recovery plan serves as a focused guide for resuming an organization's critical functions immediately after a disaster or significant disruption. Its main goal is to ensure rapid restoration of essential operations—such as customer service, order processing, payroll, or supply chain activities—so that the business can stabilize quickly and reduce financial losses.

What sets a business recovery plan apart is its operational nature. It is action-oriented and concentrates on getting things up and running, rather than long-term strategy. After a disruption like a flood, ransomware attack, or server crash, the business recovery plan is activated to bring the business back to life fast—bridging the gap between the incident and full operational capacity.

Let’s break down the other options for comparison:

Option A – The disaster recovery plan (DRP) focuses specifically on the restoration of IT systems—like servers, databases, networks, and applications. It includes procedures for data backup, system failover, and restoration. While essential, DRPs don’t usually cover non-technical functions such as HR, customer service, or product delivery—areas that are often vital for full business recovery.

Option B – The business continuity plan (BCP) is broader in scope and designed to ensure the ongoing availability of key business services during and after a disaster. It includes risk assessments, alternate work locations, and vendor management strategies. The BCP is more strategic and proactive, often addressing how to operate under duress rather than how to restart after a full stoppage.

Option C – The continuity of operations plan (COOP) is typically used in the public sector to ensure mission-critical government functions continue during emergencies. While COOP and business recovery share some similarities, COOP is less common in commercial contexts and is generally broader and longer-term in nature.

Therefore, Option D is the best choice because the business recovery plan is specifically tailored to handle the immediate aftermath of a disaster, allowing essential business activities to resume as quickly as possible.

Question 10:

Which of the following plans is formally documented and maintained as part of an organization’s security program to guide emergency responses, backup operations, and recovery efforts to ensure resource availability during crises?

A. Disaster Recovery Plan
B. Contingency Plan
C. Continuity of Operations Plan
D. Business Continuity Plan

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

A contingency plan is a structured and well-documented response strategy that outlines how an organization will react to unexpected events—such as emergencies, system failures, cyber incidents, or natural disasters—to preserve critical functions and assets. It is maintained as an integral part of the overall security and risk management program and provides guidance for emergency response, backup operations, and recovery.

The key strength of a contingency plan lies in its comprehensive scope. It integrates not just technical recovery actions but also people, processes, and facilities. For example, if a data center goes offline, the contingency plan might include procedures to reroute operations to a secondary location, alert stakeholders, and activate manual workarounds, ensuring that services are sustained with minimal disruption.

Now, let’s evaluate the other options:

Option A – The disaster recovery plan (DRP) primarily focuses on restoring IT systems and data infrastructure. It is often considered a subset of the contingency plan. While DRP is important for operational recovery, it does not provide a holistic emergency response that includes communication protocols, resource mobilization, or alternate staffing plans, which are typically covered by a contingency plan.

Option C – The continuity of operations plan (COOP) is used mainly in government and public sector environments. It ensures that essential government functions continue under a variety of emergencies. Although it shares goals with a contingency plan, it is not as widely used across private industry and may not cover operational recovery details tailored to specific businesses.

Option D – The business continuity plan (BCP) focuses on maintaining operations during and after a disaster. While BCPs support long-term sustainability and resilience, they often emphasize strategic preparation and sustained functioning over time rather than the tactical emergency response and recovery procedures emphasized in a contingency plan.

Thus, Option B is the most accurate choice because the contingency plan uniquely combines the emergency, backup, and recovery procedures necessary for maintaining operational availability and resource protection during adverse events. It stands out as a flexible, inclusive, and widely applicable blueprint for navigating organizational crises.