ISTQB CTFL-AT Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Which of the following statements is inaccurate regarding the benefits of providing early and continuous feedback during product development?

A. Early feedback reduces the time required for system testing
B. Early feedback aids in identifying and resolving quality issues sooner
C. Early feedback offers insight into how productive the Agile team is
D. Early feedback supports the creation of a product that aligns with customer needs

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In Agile development, early and frequent feedback is one of the cornerstones of iterative progress. This principle supports continual alignment with stakeholder needs, improves product quality, and guides team performance. However, not all perceived benefits are equally accurate.

Let’s evaluate each statement:

A. Early feedback reduces the time required for system testing – False
While early feedback certainly helps in catching bugs and misalignments sooner, it does not inherently reduce the overall time needed for system testing. In many Agile environments, frequent testing is integrated into each iteration or sprint. This results in more regular testing cycles, which may involve more total test executions over time. Although early feedback improves defect detection and limits the scope of large late-stage failures, it doesn’t eliminate the need for thorough end-to-end system testing. In fact, iterative releases may require repetitive testing to verify new changes and their impact on the entire system.

B. Early feedback aids in identifying and resolving quality issues sooner – True
One of the most impactful outcomes of early feedback is the ability to spot defects early in the development cycle. This reduces the cost and complexity of fixing issues and helps maintain a higher standard of code quality across the sprints. The earlier a problem is identified, the easier and cheaper it is to fix.

C. Early feedback offers insight into how productive the Agile team is – True
When stakeholders provide feedback early in the development lifecycle, it serves as a reality check for the team’s velocity, task completion, and backlog management. This visibility helps the team evaluate their productivity and make data-driven adjustments to improve efficiency in future sprints.

D. Early feedback supports the creation of a product that aligns with customer needs – True
A key benefit of Agile is that feedback loops keep the development team in sync with the customer’s evolving expectations. Through reviews, demos, and backlog grooming, Agile teams can adjust direction frequently, ensuring that the product stays aligned with user needs.

In summary, while early feedback improves many aspects of Agile development, it does not directly reduce the overall need or time for comprehensive system testing. Therefore, A is the false statement.

Question 2:

While planning tests based on the Agile Testing Quadrants, which type of testing is most appropriate for Quadrant 3, focusing on business perspectives and product critique?

A. Exploratory Testing
B. Prototype Testing
C. Performance Testing
D. Functional Testing

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The Agile Testing Quadrants offer a framework for organizing various test types across two main axes: business-facing vs. technology-facing, and support for the team vs. critique of the product. Quadrant 3 sits at the intersection of business-facing and product critique, making it essential for capturing feedback related to usability, user experience, and alignment with business goals.

Let’s examine each option in this context:

A. Exploratory Testing – Correct
Exploratory testing is well-suited for Quadrant 3 because it’s focused on ad-hoc, unscripted testing conducted from a business or end-user point of view. The tester investigates the product with curiosity and flexibility, aiming to uncover usability issues, inconsistencies, or gaps in business logic. This approach often reveals issues that scripted tests miss, particularly those involving user expectations or workflow challenges. Since Quadrant 3 is about understanding whether the product is valuable and usable, exploratory testing aligns perfectly with its purpose.

B. Prototype Testing – Not the best fit
Although prototype testing helps stakeholders visualize and provide feedback on early concepts, it generally occurs before development has progressed far enough for thorough product critique. It's more about validating ideas and gathering input for design iteration, which positions it closer to pre-development activities than formal test quadrants.

C. Performance Testing – Incorrect
Performance testing examines the system’s technical behavior under stress—for example, how many users it can support or how it handles high load. This type of testing is technology-facing and typically belongs in Quadrant 4, which critiques the product from a technical standpoint.

D. Functional Testing – Incorrect
Functional testing verifies whether a system works according to predefined requirements. It's often scripted, structured, and technology-focused. This aligns it more with Quadrant 1 or 2, where the emphasis is on validation and verification rather than product critique from a user/business angle.

In summary, exploratory testing is the most suitable method for Quadrant 3, as it allows Agile teams to receive actionable, user-centric feedback on how well the product aligns with business goals and end-user expectations.

Question 3:

What is one of the main advantages of adopting a whole-team approach within an Agile team?

A. Minimizes repeated test cases since testers and engineers work as one unit
B. Allows testers to lead the team’s quality assurance efforts independently
C. Encourages team members to focus exclusively on their specialized tasks
D. Utilizes the collective skills of all team members to enhance project success

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The whole-team approach is a cornerstone of Agile methodologies. It emphasizes that everyone on the team—developers, testers, designers, product owners, and others—shares ownership of both the product and its quality. Rather than operating in role-specific silos, team members collaborate, contribute across traditional boundaries, and work together toward common goals.

Option D accurately reflects the essence of this approach: leveraging the diverse skill sets of team members to benefit the overall project. When a team embraces collective ownership, problems are solved faster, decisions are more informed, and outcomes often improve due to the blend of perspectives and experiences. For instance, a developer might contribute ideas during test design, or a tester might give input during user story refinement. This holistic collaboration allows teams to be more innovative, adaptive, and aligned with business goals.

Let’s examine why the other options are less suitable:

• A mentions reduced test duplication due to a unified team of testers and engineers. While such efficiencies may emerge, this is not a primary benefit of a whole-team mindset. The goal is broader: fostering shared responsibility, not just optimizing test coverage.

• B suggests that testers are responsible for quality on behalf of the team. This contradicts the Agile philosophy, where quality is a team-wide responsibility, not solely the domain of testers. Everyone contributes to maintaining and improving quality, from requirements to release.

• C reflects a siloed approach, where individuals remain confined to their specialties. This runs counter to the principles of Agile and the whole-team method, which encourage cross-functional collaboration and collective accountability.
  In summary, the whole-team approach enhances project delivery by encouraging inclusive collaboration, breaking down role barriers, and ensuring that the full range of talents within the team is applied to every aspect of the project. This shared commitment leads to improved product quality, faster delivery, and stronger team cohesion. Therefore, the most fitting answer is D.

Question 4:

During an exploratory testing session with the goal of verifying the “Buy a bus ticket” function, which of the following reported issues would be considered outside the session’s scope?

A. Incorrect pricing calculation for the bus ticket
B. Inability to purchase a bus ticket after 6 PM
C. Failure to buy a bus ticket when the central system connection is lost
D. Parking ticket payment limited to cash with no credit card option

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Exploratory testing is a dynamic and unscripted testing method where testers use their creativity and domain knowledge to explore a system’s behavior based on a defined test charter. The charter serves as a mission statement, outlining what functionality or aspect of the system the tester should focus on during the session.

In this scenario, the test charter is “Buy a bus ticket,” which clearly defines the scope: testing features and behaviors associated with purchasing bus tickets. That scope includes any functionality, errors, or limitations directly tied to the bus ticket purchase process.

Let’s evaluate the reported issues one by one:

• A (Price for a bus ticket was calculated incorrectly): This defect is clearly in scope, as price calculation is a fundamental part of the ticket-buying process. Errors here can directly impact customer experience and revenue accuracy.

• B (Unable to buy a ticket after 6 PM): This is also within scope, especially if the system should permit 24/7 transactions or follow specific time-based rules. Identifying such time-bound issues helps confirm that business logic is implemented correctly.

• C (Ticket purchase fails when the central system is down): This issue is valid within the test’s focus. Network failures or connectivity issues to backend services can affect the ability to complete a ticket transaction. It’s critical to know how the system handles such disruptions.

• D (Parking ticket payment only allows cash): This is the only issue unrelated to the test charter. Although the Park & Ride system may handle both bus and parking tickets, this specific session was not aimed at evaluating parking functionalities. Exploring unrelated modules dilutes the purpose of the session and can compromise the depth of testing within the defined scope.

Thus, while A, B, and C are valid defects within the test mission, D refers to a separate subsystem and lies outside the bounds of the exploratory testing objective. Therefore, the correct choice is D.

Question 5:

Your project has just completed planning for Sprint 5, which aims to enhance the system’s performance. 

Based on this objective, which of the following acceptance criteria would most appropriately reflect performance-related goals?

A i, iii
B iii, iv
C iv, v
D ii, v

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

In Agile development, every sprint typically has a clear focus or theme—be it feature development, technical debt reduction, or performance enhancement. In this scenario, Sprint 5 is dedicated to boosting system performance, so only acceptance criteria directly aligned with performance goals or performance validation should be selected.

Let’s analyze the given statements:

i) User access for all roles has been validated – This pertains to role-based access control or security, not system performance. It may be critical in a security or functionality-focused sprint but doesn’t align with the performance improvement objective of Sprint 5.

ii) A static analysis tool has been executed for all code – While static code analysis contributes to code quality, maintainability, and detecting potential issues early, it is not a direct measure of performance. It may help in the long run, but it doesn't offer immediate insights into runtime behavior or response times.

iii) 100% of the existing regression test suite has passed – This is a valid criterion for any sprint involving changes. When performance-related improvements are implemented, it is essential to verify that nothing else is broken. Regression testing ensures system stability and functional integrity, indirectly supporting performance goals by confirming the system behaves as expected under the updated code.

iv) System is responding in less than 3 seconds, 90% of the time – This is the most direct and relevant performance metric. It clearly outlines a quantifiable improvement benchmark, matching Sprint 5’s core objective. Acceptance criteria should always be measurable, and this one perfectly defines an expected outcome in terms of system speed.

v) A new version of Internet Explorer has been included – This speaks more to compatibility testing or environmental support, not to performance. While browser upgrades can affect rendering or behavior, this inclusion doesn’t validate or measure performance gains.

Thus, the most appropriate acceptance criteria for a sprint focused on system performance are:

• iii: Regression test suite passing (ensures stable functionality)

• iv: Performance benchmark (response time target)

Hence, the correct answer is B.

Question 6:

Which scenario provides the highest degree of independence for testers working within Agile development teams?

A Testers are fully embedded in each Agile team to perform many of the testing tasks.
B Testers from an independent test team do not participate in sprints but conduct system testing after all sprints conclude.
C Testers from an independent team join Agile teams on-demand during the last days of each sprint.
D Testers from an independent test team join at the project’s start and switch to a new Agile team after completion.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Agile development promotes collaboration and continuous feedback, often requiring testers to work closely with developers, product owners, and stakeholders. However, this proximity can reduce tester independence, which is essential for objective quality assurance—particularly when measuring final product readiness.

Let’s examine the independence level provided by each option:

A. Embedded testers in Agile teams
Here, testers are fully integrated within Agile teams, participating in sprint ceremonies, pairing with developers, and performing ongoing testing. While this approach promotes fast feedback and better communication, it reduces independence. Testers may become biased due to close collaboration or feel pressure to confirm the team’s success, rather than objectively evaluating quality.

B. Testers from an independent test team performing system testing after all sprints
This model preserves the highest degree of independence. Testers are detached from day-to-day sprint activities and only engage in testing once all development is complete. This separation ensures they evaluate the system objectively, without being influenced by team dynamics or delivery pressures. Though this approach may delay feedback, it’s ideal for unbiased verification and is often used for final system, acceptance, or regulatory testing.

C. Testers join in the final days of each sprint
This allows some flexibility, but their late involvement reduces the time available for understanding the system thoroughly. Also, since they participate in sprint activities (albeit late), they still risk reduced independence and insufficient testing coverage.

D. Testers join early and stay until project end
While this ensures that testers understand the system deeply and can contribute throughout, being embedded in the Agile team still means less independence. Their exposure to internal priorities and goals can lead to implicit biases, despite rotating between teams after project completion.

In Agile, complete independence is rare, but for maximum separation from development influence, option B is the best. It offers the most unbiased, external perspective—ideal for catching issues the core team may overlook.

Thus, the correct answer is B.

Question 7:

What is one potential downside of using Continuous Integration (CI) in software development workflows?

A. Development teams sometimes rely too heavily on unit testing and overlook essential system or acceptance testing.
B. Testers may be overloaded with frequent builds, lowering the effectiveness of their testing.
C. CI eliminates the possibility of manual testing because all test processes must be automated.
D. Developers’ workloads significantly increase, resulting in a drop in productivity.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Continuous Integration (CI) is widely adopted in software development because it enhances the speed and reliability of integrating code changes into a shared repository. Automated tests, frequent commits, and early issue detection are some of its hallmark advantages. However, like any development practice, CI introduces certain risks if not managed effectively.

Option A identifies a legitimate concern: the overdependence on unit tests. Unit tests are relatively easy to automate and are usually executed quickly during the CI process. This makes them highly attractive and often the primary testing layer during CI cycles. However, when teams place too much emphasis on unit tests, they may unintentionally neglect higher-level testing such as system tests, integration tests, and acceptance tests. These types of tests verify the behavior of the complete system and help ensure the user requirements are met. The omission of such testing levels can result in bugs slipping into production, especially those involving inter-component behavior, data flow, or real user scenarios.

Option B brings up an operational concern about testers being overwhelmed by numerous builds. While it’s a realistic problem in some fast-paced environments, it's not an inherent risk of CI itself. A well-implemented CI pipeline includes automation and prioritization to avoid such overload, enabling scalable testing even with frequent commits.

Option C is incorrect because CI does not require the elimination of manual testing. CI favors automation for repetitive and regression testing, but manual testing still plays a critical role, especially in areas like exploratory testing, usability, and complex user interactions. It is complementary—not exclusive—to automation.

Option D claims that CI increases developer workload to the point of reduced output. While developers do need to write and maintain tests, this typically enhances long-term efficiency. By catching errors earlier, CI helps avoid time-consuming debugging later in the cycle, often leading to a net productivity gain.

In summary, while CI significantly benefits software quality and team collaboration, over-reliance on unit tests—as stated in Option A—is a valid and recognized risk. This can lead to insufficient overall testing coverage, making A the correct answer.

Question 8:

You're adding an instruction screen to an industrial Espresso machine used by restaurant staff. 

Based on the user story, which of the following risks should be treated as the highest priority due to both high likelihood and high impact?

A. Operators might ignore the instructions and press buttons randomly. (Low probability, low impact)
B. Instructions could be incorrect or improperly sequenced. (Low probability, high impact)
C. A customer without training might attempt to use the machine. (High probability, high impact)
D. A small child might try to steam milk. (High probability, low impact)

Answer: C

Explanation:

When designing software and interfaces for industrial or customer-facing hardware, risk identification and prioritization are crucial to ensure safety, usability, and performance. In this scenario, the espresso machine will display instructions to guide restaurant staff, and a set of potential operational risks has been identified and categorized based on probability (likelihood of occurring) and impact (severity of consequences).

Let’s analyze each risk option:

A. Operators ignoring instructions has both a low likelihood and low impact. While user inattention is a concern, trained staff are expected to learn or adapt quickly. This behavior is unlikely to cause significant issues beyond some inefficiency.

B. Incorrect or misordered instructions present a high-impact risk because they may lead to user confusion, poor coffee quality, or machine misuse. However, since the probability of this happening is considered low—assuming a solid development and QA process—this doesn’t qualify as the highest-priority risk but should still be mitigated.

C. An untrained customer using the machine is labeled high-probability, high-impact, making it the most critical concern. Since this machine is placed in a restaurant environment, there's a realistic chance customers could access it, especially in open layouts or self-service areas. If a customer with no training tries to operate the machine, this could lead to incorrect usage, potential injury, or equipment damage. The consequences of such misuse are serious and far-reaching, affecting safety, reputation, and cost. Mitigating this might involve user authentication, warning messages, or restricted interface access.

D. A small child attempting to steam milk has a high probability but a low impact. While child safety is critical, in most restaurant settings, children would not be left unsupervised near such machines. Even if they do access the buttons, modern safety interlocks likely prevent hazardous outcomes. Therefore, this risk ranks lower in priority than C.

Given both the likelihood and seriousness, the most critical risk is C: an untrained customer using the machine. Proper precautions must be implemented to limit unauthorized access and protect both users and equipment.

Hence, the correct answer is C.

Question 9:

Which of the following statements does NOT accurately represent a benefit of Agile practices that encourage early and continuous feedback?

A. Early feedback helps teams quickly correct errors in requirements and defects before they become major issues.
B. Retrospectives generate feedback that supports improvements in the next development cycle.
C. Feedback loops help ensure the team delivers the most valuable features to customers first.
D. Regular stakeholder communication in Agile eliminates all forms of communication issues.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Agile methodologies emphasize early and frequent feedback as a key to building better products and enhancing team performance. However, the belief that frequent communication solves all communication problems is incorrect, making D the false statement among the otherwise accurate benefits listed.

Let’s review the options:

A. Early feedback helps teams quickly correct errors in requirements and defects before they become major issues.
This is true. Agile encourages iterative development, where feedback is incorporated early and often. Regular reviews and updates from stakeholders help detect mismatches in expectations and errors in logic or implementation early in the development process. By identifying these issues promptly, teams can resolve them faster and more cheaply compared to addressing them later in the lifecycle.

B. Retrospectives generate feedback that supports improvements in the next development cycle.
This is also true. One of Agile’s core principles is continuous improvement. At the end of each iteration or sprint, the team holds a retrospective to discuss what went well, what didn’t, and how the process can be improved. Actionable insights from these discussions are then applied in the next sprint, fostering a cycle of ongoing refinement.

C. Feedback loops help ensure the team delivers the most valuable features to customers first.
Correct. Agile projects prioritize features based on business value and customer needs. Regular feedback from stakeholders ensures the backlog is reprioritized frequently, allowing the team to focus on features that have the highest impact and utility. This value-driven approach is a fundamental reason for Agile's widespread adoption.

D. Regular stakeholder communication in Agile eliminates all forms of communication issues.
This is not accurate. While Agile fosters better communication through daily stand-ups, sprint reviews, and constant collaboration, it does not eliminate all communication problems. Misunderstandings can still occur due to ambiguity, assumptions, differing technical knowledge, language barriers, or lack of engagement. Agile practices mitigate many of these issues but cannot completely prevent them.

Thus, the one incorrect statement, and therefore the correct answer, is D.

Question 10:

Which of the following statements about a test charter are accurate?

i. It is primarily used during exploratory testing.
ii. It helps in monitoring the overall test process.
iii. It can include references to user stories.
iv. It may contain notes recorded during a test session.
v. It serves as a document outlining company-wide test policies.

A. i, ii, v
B. ii, iii, iv
C. ii, iv, v
D. i, iii, iv

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

A test charter is a lightweight planning tool primarily used in exploratory testing to guide a tester’s session. It defines the scope, goals, and focus areas of a test but allows flexibility in how the tester approaches it. The correct answers here are i, iii, and iv, making D the right choice.

Let’s assess each option:

i. It is primarily used during exploratory testing.
This is correct. Exploratory testing doesn’t rely on scripted test cases. Instead, testers explore the application freely, guided by the goals outlined in the test charter. The charter acts like a mission statement for the session, helping testers stay focused while encouraging creativity and adaptability.

ii. It helps in monitoring the overall test process.
This is incorrect. While test charters are useful during individual test sessions, they do not serve as monitoring tools for the full test process. Monitoring is typically handled through metrics, dashboards, or management reports, not through charters.

iii. It can include references to user stories.
This is correct. In Agile environments, test charters often relate to user stories, as these define functionality from an end-user perspective. Testers might focus their session on verifying a particular user story or scenario, using it as a basis for exploration.

iv. It may contain notes recorded during a test session.
Also correct. A common practice during exploratory testing is for testers to document their observations, bugs found, unusual behaviors, and insights directly into the charter. These notes support communication and traceability of what was tested.

v. It serves as a document outlining company-wide test policies.
This is false. A test charter is specific to individual sessions or features, not strategic-level testing policies. High-level testing principles are captured in a test policy document or test strategy, not in session-level planning tools like a charter.

Thus, the correct set of accurate statements is i, iii, and iv, making the right answer D.