ECCouncil EC0-349 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

When an investigator contacts the domain administrator listed in a WHOIS search to request the preservation of a user's emails, which U.S. Code provision legally supports this action and requires the ISP to retain those email records?

A Title 18, Section 1030
B Title 18, Section 2703(d)
C Title 18, Section Chapter 90
D Title 18, Section 2703(f)

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The preservation of electronic communications, particularly emails, by an Internet Service Provider (ISP) when requested by a government investigator, is governed by U.S. legislation found in the Stored Communications Act (SCA), part of Title 18 of the U.S. Code. Among the options provided, Title 18, Section 2703(f) is the most directly applicable statute.

This section authorizes and compels ISPs to preserve records temporarily when they receive a formal preservation request from law enforcement. The preservation can occur before a subpoena, warrant, or court order is formally issued. Essentially, it acts as a safeguard to ensure that vital digital evidence is not lost or altered while investigators are in the process of securing the legal authority for access. The ISP must retain the specified records for a minimum of 90 days, and this period can be extended upon request.

Let's consider why the other options are incorrect:

• A (Section 1030) falls under the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act. While it criminalizes unauthorized access to computer systems and addresses cybercrimes broadly, it doesn't deal with the preservation of data.

• B (Section 2703(d)) is part of the SCA as well but is related to disclosure of records through court orders, not preservation. It governs the criteria under which a provider may be compelled to disclose records but doesn’t require proactive retention of data upon request.
  
  

• C (Chapter 90) is vague and non-specific in this context. It appears to reference a broader or incorrect section without clear relevance to preservation duties.

Therefore, the correct legal mechanism that enables an investigator to contact an ISP and obligate them to retain a user’s emails for a period of time is Title 18, Section 2703(f), making D the correct answer.

Question 2:

What can be concluded if you encounter a sheepdip system at a client location?

A It manages and coordinates multiple honeypots
B It is a different term for a honeypot system
C It is a computer used specifically for scanning devices for viruses
D It serves to delay or prevent denial-of-service attacks

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

A sheepdip computer is a dedicated machine used for isolated malware scanning and antivirus checks, particularly for storage devices or systems before they are allowed to connect to a larger, secure network. This term borrows from the agricultural process of “sheep dipping,” where livestock are cleaned of parasites before being integrated with the rest of the flock. The metaphor aptly fits cybersecurity: devices are scanned and “cleaned” before joining the trusted network.

Organizations use sheepdip systems as a preventative security measure. For example, a USB flash drive brought in from an unknown source might first be plugged into a sheepdip computer, which is isolated from the main infrastructure, to verify that the device is free of malicious software. This helps prevent malware infections that could lead to data breaches, ransomware attacks, or system compromise.

Now, examining the incorrect options:

• A suggests that a sheepdip coordinates honeypots. This is inaccurate. Honeypots are decoy systems used to attract and monitor malicious activity, not detect viruses in new or external devices.

• B equates a sheepdip to a honeypot. Though both are part of a cybersecurity toolkit, they serve entirely different purposes. A honeypot is deceptive and investigative; a sheepdip is proactive and preventive.

• D proposes that a sheepdip defends against denial-of-service (DoS) attacks. This is incorrect, as DoS mitigation typically involves network-based tools such as firewalls, rate limiting, and intrusion detection/prevention systems—not sheepdip computers.

In conclusion, the primary purpose of a sheepdip system is to act as a controlled environment for virus and malware scanning before new devices or media are introduced to a secure environment. Hence, the correct answer is C.

Question 3:

What is the term used to describe the documented path that digital evidence follows from the moment it's collected until it is presented in court or the case concludes?

A rules of evidence
B law of probability
C chain of custody
D policy of separation

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

In the context of digital forensics, the chain of custody refers to the meticulously recorded journey that a piece of evidence takes from its initial discovery all the way to its use in legal proceedings or closure of the investigation. This concept is essential because it verifies the integrity and authenticity of the evidence, proving that it has not been altered, damaged, or tampered with throughout the investigative process.

The chain of custody includes detailed documentation on when the evidence was collected, who collected it, who accessed it, when it was moved or analyzed, and where it was stored. Every individual who handles the evidence is accounted for, creating a reliable and auditable trail. This is particularly important in legal settings because any break or ambiguity in the chain can result in the evidence being deemed inadmissible in court.

Now, let’s evaluate the other answer choices:

• A (rules of evidence) refers to the legal guidelines governing the admissibility and use of evidence in court, but it does not track the handling of evidence during the investigation.

• B (law of probability) is unrelated to forensics evidence management; it deals with statistical analysis and has no connection to the procedural aspect of evidence tracking.

• D (policy of separation) might imply a strategy to minimize evidence contamination, but it does not define the process of documenting the evidence's handling and transfer.

Only C (chain of custody) accurately describes the continuous and verifiable record of evidence handling. Without a reliable chain of custody, the credibility of the digital evidence could be challenged in court, potentially undermining the entire investigation.

Question 4:

When an MD5 hashing algorithm generates a checksum for a system file, how many characters does the resulting hash contain?

A 128
B 64
C 32
D 16

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

The MD5 algorithm, short for Message Digest Algorithm 5, is a commonly used hashing function designed to produce a fixed-length output from any input data, typically a string or file. When MD5 processes data, it generates a 128-bit hash. However, when expressed in hexadecimal format — which is the standard representation — this 128-bit value is converted into 32 characters.

Here's why: each hexadecimal character represents 4 bits. Since MD5 produces a 128-bit hash, and 128 divided by 4 equals 32, the final MD5 hash string always contains exactly 32 hexadecimal characters. For example, the MD5 hash of an empty string is:
d41d8cd98f00b204e9800998ecf8427e
This string is precisely 32 characters long, regardless of the original data's size or type.

Let's assess the other options:

• A (128) is incorrect because it confuses the bit length with character count. While MD5 does produce a 128-bit output, it is not 128 characters.

• B (64) is incorrect as well. Some might mistake this for other hashing functions like SHA-512, which do produce longer hashes, but MD5 is specifically 32 characters.

• D (16) is also incorrect; this may refer to 16 bytes (since 128 bits = 16 bytes), but bytes are not what the question is asking — it’s about characters in the hexadecimal string.

Thus, C (32) is the correct answer. This fixed-length output makes MD5 useful in verifying file integrity, although it is considered cryptographically broken and unsuitable for secure applications due to vulnerabilities like collisions. Nevertheless, its fixed and predictable format is still used in various non-security contexts like checksums for file validation.

Question 5:

While working on your doctoral thesis in Computer Science, you are analyzing the evolution of web technologies by examining both past and present HTML code of news.com using archive.org. During this comparison, you encounter something suspicious embedded within the site's code. 

What is the most likely abnormality you’ve discovered?

A Web bug
B CGI code
C Trojan.downloader
D Blind bug

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

When reviewing the HTML code of websites—especially when comparing historical and current versions—it's possible to encounter elements that seem out of place or suspicious. In such cases, recognizing various forms of embedded code is essential for identifying potential privacy issues or security concerns.

A web bug (also known as a tracking pixel or beacon) is a small, often invisible object embedded into a webpage, usually as a 1x1 pixel image or script. Its primary purpose is to quietly track user activity, such as page visits, behavior, or engagement. Web bugs commonly send this data to third parties, such as advertisers or analytics services, without the user’s knowledge. While they are widely used for tracking, their presence in code—especially without clear disclosure—can be deemed abnormal, particularly from a privacy standpoint.

This makes A the correct answer. If, during your comparison of past and current HTML versions of news.com, you detect an inconspicuous image or script referencing an external server, that is a strong indicator of a web bug. They’re frequently implemented via JavaScript or small HTML tags, and might not visibly affect the page, making them easy to overlook unless you're specifically inspecting the code.

Option B, CGI code, is standard server-side technology and typically wouldn't appear embedded directly in the HTML. It might be referenced by a form's action URL, but it’s not unusual or inherently suspicious.

Option C, a Trojan.downloader, is malicious software intended to fetch and install additional malware. While harmful, this kind of malware doesn’t usually show up clearly in readable HTML—it's more likely hidden in obfuscated JavaScript or an executable file.

Option D, blind bug, is not a commonly used term in web development or security and doesn’t refer to a recognizable HTML anomaly.

Thus, the presence of a hidden tracking mechanism aligns with the definition of a web bug, making A the correct and most appropriate answer.

Question 6:

While using the forensic tool DriveSpy, you need to extract data starting from sector 1709 on the primary hard drive and continue for a total of 150 sectors. 

Which of the following sector format statements is correctly written for this operation?

A 0:1000, 150
B 0:1709, 150
C 1:1709, 150
D 0:1709-1858

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

In digital forensics, tools like DriveSpy allow analysts to copy or examine specific portions of a hard drive by specifying sectors. The syntax generally includes the drive number, followed by the starting sector and either a sector count or a sector range. Understanding the correct syntax is essential for accurate data extraction.

The correct format in this context is B, which reads as “0:1709, 150”. Here's why:

• The 0 denotes the primary hard drive, which is typically referred to as drive 0 in most forensic tools.

• The 1709 indicates the starting sector from which the data copying should begin.

• The 150 specifies the number of sectors to copy starting from that point.

This structure meets the requirement exactly, aligning with how sector-based copying is performed in DriveSpy.

Option A (0:1000, 150) starts from the wrong sector—1000 instead of 1709. Even though the number of sectors is correct, the incorrect starting point makes this answer invalid.

Option C (1:1709, 150) uses the correct starting sector and count but specifies the wrong drive number. The question refers to the primary hard drive, which is drive 0, not drive 1. Forensic tools treat these drive numbers strictly, so this is a critical error.

Option D (0:1709-1858) technically defines a range that covers 150 sectors (1709 through 1858 inclusive), which would result in the correct data being copied. However, the question explicitly asks for the sectors to be specified by starting point and count, not a range. While functionally correct, this is not the format expected based on the prompt’s wording.

Therefore, the precise and syntactically appropriate way to copy 150 sectors starting at sector 1709 on the primary drive is B: 0:1709, 150. This matches forensic best practices and tool-specific syntax requirements.

Question 7:

An attacker compromised a honeypot with the IP address 172.16.1.108. The following excerpt from a Snort binary log captures part of the attack. Based solely on the visible log entries, what activity can be explicitly identified?

A. The attacker has conducted a network sweep on port 111
B. The attacker has scanned and exploited the system using Buffer Overflow
C. The attacker has used a Trojan on port 32773
D. The attacker has installed a backdoor

Correct Answer:  A

Explanation:

The log entries in the Snort binary capture reveal specific network activity involving an external IP address (211.185.125.124) communicating with two internal IP addresses (172.16.1.108 and 172.16.1.103). The communication primarily targets port 111, which is a well-known port for Remote Procedure Call (RPC) services. RPC is commonly exploited due to vulnerabilities in the services that run on this port, especially in older systems.

In the first and second packets, there is consistent traffic from the attacker's IP to two different hosts on the same port (111). This kind of repeated probing across multiple devices on the same port suggests a network sweep or reconnaissance scan, likely to identify which systems are running RPC services and might be vulnerable. This is a typical technique used during the early stages of an attack to gather intelligence about the target network.

The third packet shows activity directed toward port 32773, a high-numbered port often associated with backdoor or Trojan communication. However, there’s no explicit evidence in the logs that confirm a successful Trojan installation or any payload being executed. Without proof of malicious code execution or a system compromise, we cannot definitively conclude that a Trojan was used or a backdoor was installed.

Similarly, there are no clear indicators of buffer overflow exploitation. Such exploitation would usually be indicated by payload data or commands leading to crashes or unauthorized access, none of which are evident in the snippet.

Because the attacker’s actions are limited to scanning RPC services on multiple hosts using port 111, the only direct and provable conclusion is that a network sweep was performed. This is consistent with standard reconnaissance behavior prior to exploitation attempts.

Thus, the most accurate and supportable choice is A.

Question 8:

What operating system forms the foundational layer beneath Apple’s macOS?

A. OS/2
B. BSD Unix
C. Linux
D. Microsoft Windows

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

macOS, Apple’s flagship operating system for Macintosh computers, is built upon a strong and stable core known as BSD Unix. This Unix-based origin plays a vital role in macOS’s architecture, providing it with robustness, multitasking capabilities, and advanced security features that have become hallmarks of Apple systems.

The journey to BSD Unix began when Apple sought a replacement for its older, less secure operating systems in the late 1990s. To support modern computing needs and enhance system reliability, Apple chose to base its new system on UNIX, particularly BSD (Berkeley Software Distribution), a well-regarded flavor of Unix known for its openness and efficiency.

macOS is built upon Darwin, Apple’s open-source operating system that incorporates components from BSD Unix and the Mach microkernel. Darwin handles core system operations, such as process scheduling, memory management, and hardware interaction. The BSD layers, in particular, provide essential services like networking, file system control, and system calls, forming the backbone of the OS’s internal functionality.

Above this Unix-based foundation, Apple integrates proprietary layers, including its distinctive Aqua graphical user interface and user-facing technologies such as Cocoa, Metal, and Swift. These layers ensure a sleek and intuitive user experience while maintaining the integrity and security of the underlying BSD Unix environment.

Importantly, the choice of BSD Unix ensures compatibility with many industry-standard tools and protocols. It also benefits developers, especially those with a background in Unix or Linux systems, by offering familiar command-line utilities and scripting environments.

While other options may appear similar, they are incorrect. Linux is a Unix-like system but not the base for macOS. OS/2 was an IBM and Microsoft joint project unrelated to Apple. Microsoft Windows has a completely different kernel architecture and shares no foundational components with macOS.

In conclusion, the solid, secure, and Unix-compliant nature of BSD Unix makes it the foundational layer of macOS, giving it both power and reliability. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Question 9:

Before an individual can testify in court as a forensic expert, what action must the lawyer take first?

A. Engage in damage control
B. Prove that the examination tools are flawless
C. Read the expert's CV to the jury
D. Qualify the individual as an expert witness

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In courtroom procedures, an attorney must take specific steps to ensure that a person presented as an expert witness is recognized as such by the court. The first and most essential step is qualifying the individual as an expert witness. This process is governed by rules of evidence and involves the attorney demonstrating that the proposed expert has the necessary background—such as specialized training, certifications, education, or professional experience—to provide opinion-based testimony that is relevant to the case.

This qualification process typically occurs before the expert can give testimony on the case’s technical aspects. The attorney will ask the witness a series of questions to establish credibility and competence in their field. This may include discussing their education, years of experience, publications, certifications, and prior expert testimony. Once the court is satisfied with the credentials, the judge formally recognizes the individual as an expert, permitting them to testify with opinions, which regular witnesses are not allowed to do.

Let’s break down the choices:

• A. Damage control is not part of qualifying an expert; it’s a reactive strategy used when testimony or evidence may harm a case.

• B. Proving that the tools used are “perfect” is unrealistic and not a prerequisite to qualifying an expert. Tool reliability might be discussed later, but it's not part of the qualification step.

• C. Reading a CV to the jury is insufficient by itself. It may be included in the qualification process, but it must be accompanied by direct questioning to establish credibility.

• D. This is the correct answer. The expert must be formally recognized by the court through a qualification process before offering expert opinions.

In summary, without being officially qualified by the court, the witness cannot offer expert opinions. Therefore, the attorney must first establish the individual’s expertise to allow their testimony to be considered authoritative and admissible.

Question 10:

While investigating a large bank with four 30 TB storage networks, which method would be the most appropriate and efficient for acquiring digital forensic evidence?

A. Use DoubleSpace to create a compressed file copy
B. Generate a sparse copy of specific files or folders
C. Perform a bit-stream disk-to-image acquisition
D. Create a direct bit-stream copy from disk to disk

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

When collecting digital evidence from a massive storage system like four 30 TB SANs in a bank, the primary goal is to preserve data integrity while capturing everything in a forensically sound manner. The best method to accomplish this is bit-stream disk-to-image acquisition. This technique creates a sector-by-sector copy of the entire storage volume, including all files, free space, deleted data, and hidden partitions—everything that resides on the storage medium.

A bit-stream image ensures that no part of the storage is overlooked, making it ideal for forensic purposes. Since the image is saved as a file, it allows investigators to examine the data without touching or altering the original source, thus maintaining evidentiary integrity. It also provides flexibility to use forensic tools for keyword searches, data recovery, and analysis without the risk of contaminating the original evidence.

Here’s a breakdown of the alternatives:

• A. DoubleSpace is a legacy compression tool not suitable for forensic work. Compression alters data structure and can undermine integrity, making the evidence inadmissible in court.

• B. A sparse copy only includes non-empty data blocks. This approach skips over unused space, potentially missing deleted or hidden evidence. It is unsuitable for complete forensic acquisition.

• C. This is the correct choice. A bit-stream image captures everything on the disk, ensuring no data—active, deleted, or hidden—is left behind. It's the industry standard for forensic imaging.

• D. While disk-to-disk copying also preserves data bit-for-bit, it is less flexible. Managing and analyzing disk-to-disk copies is more difficult, especially when dealing with large-scale storage like in this scenario.

To summarize, option C is the most efficient and legally defensible way to acquire digital evidence from a large storage system. It ensures completeness, maintains chain of custody, and aligns with best practices in forensic investigation.