ECCouncil ECSS Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

To execute a firewalking attack and gather information about a network shielded by a firewall, which of the following conditions must be in place?

A. The network must allow outbound ICMP packets.
B. The attacker must know the IP address of the last router before the firewall.
C. A backdoor must already be installed inside the target network.
D. The attacker must know the IP address of at least one internal host behind the firewall.

Correct Answers: A, B, D

Explanation:

Firewalking is a reconnaissance method that an attacker can use to deduce firewall rules and determine which ports and protocols are allowed through. It operates by analyzing how Time-To-Live (TTL) values affect packet travel through a firewall. After performing a traceroute to discover network topology up to the firewall, the attacker sends packets with TTLs that expire just past the firewall and observes whether they generate ICMP "Time Exceeded" responses. This feedback helps infer which types of traffic are permitted by the firewall.

For firewalking to succeed, certain preconditions must be satisfied:

A. Outbound ICMP Packets Must Be Allowed
This is essential because firewalking relies on ICMP Time Exceeded messages (ICMP type 11) being returned to the attacker. These messages inform the attacker that the TTL expired at a specific point, usually one hop past the firewall. Without outbound ICMP permitted, these messages never return, rendering the technique ineffective.

B. Knowledge of the Last Gateway Before the Firewall
Understanding the IP address or hop count to the gateway just before the firewall allows the attacker to accurately set the TTL value on crafted packets. This ensures the packet expires immediately after passing through the firewall, which is crucial to detect whether the firewall allows traffic on certain ports or protocols.

C. A Backdoor is Not Required
This option is incorrect. Firewalking is a reconnaissance activity, not a post-exploitation method. It is used during the early stages of an attack to gather intelligence. Installing a backdoor would imply prior access, which is not needed for firewalking.

D. Knowledge of an Internal Host’s IP Address
To test whether a firewall permits traffic to internal systems, the attacker needs at least one valid internal destination address. Without this, the attacker cannot construct a meaningful probe, making it impossible to determine which ports are open through the firewall.

In summary, firewalking requires:

• ICMP Time Exceeded responses (A),

• Knowledge of the last known hop before the firewall (B), and

Question 2:

Which of the following options represent actual wireless security encryption standards?

A. WEP
B. WPA2
C. WPA
D. WEP2

Correct Answers: A, B, C

Explanation:

Wireless encryption standards are protocols designed to secure wireless network traffic by ensuring only authorized users can access the network and that data is transmitted securely. Over time, wireless encryption protocols have evolved from basic and flawed to highly secure and industry-standard. Let’s analyze each choice to determine whether it is a legitimate wireless security protocol.

A. WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy)
WEP was one of the earliest encryption methods introduced with the original IEEE 802.11 standard. While it aimed to match the security of wired networks, it suffered from critical flaws—primarily its weak encryption algorithm and predictable initialization vectors. WEP has since been deprecated, but it remains a historically valid standard. Thus, this is a correct option.

B. WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2)
WPA2 succeeded WPA and became the new standard in wireless security. It uses AES (Advanced Encryption Standard), which provides a significant improvement over WEP and WPA’s TKIP. WPA2 became mandatory for Wi-Fi-certified products in 2006 and is still widely used today. It represents one of the most robust encryption methods currently available (excluding WPA3). Therefore, this is a correct and widely adopted standard.

C. WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access)
WPA was a temporary solution introduced to fix WEP’s vulnerabilities while WPA2 was under development. It used TKIP, which offered better encryption and dynamic key generation. Although WPA has largely been replaced by WPA2 and WPA3, it was still a recognized and standardized protocol in its time. This makes WPA a correct answer.

D. WEP2
This is not a real standard. While there were discussions about improving WEP, no official version called “WEP2” was released. Instead, the security community transitioned to WPA and then WPA2 due to WEP's unresolvable issues. WEP2 may appear in informal discussions but lacks any formal specification or support. Hence, this is incorrect.

To conclude:

• WEP, WPA, and WPA2 are recognized wireless encryption protocols.

• WEP2 is not a legitimate or standardized encryption method.

Question 3:

Which OSI model layer is responsible for handling tasks such as protocol translation, encryption and decryption of data, and compressing data for transmission?

A. Transport layer
B. Presentation layer
C. Data-link layer
D. Network layer

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model defines a layered framework to describe how data moves through a network. Each of the seven layers in the OSI model has distinct roles, ranging from physical signal transmission to software-level interactions.

This question targets three key responsibilities: protocol conversion, encryption/decryption, and data compression. These functions fall under the responsibilities of the Presentation layer, which is Layer 6 of the OSI model.

The Presentation layer serves as the translator between the Application layer (Layer 7) and the lower layers of the OSI model. Its primary role is to ensure that data sent from one system can be properly understood by another, regardless of differences in data formats or conventions. To achieve this, the Presentation layer performs several vital functions:

• Protocol Conversion: It helps convert data between various encoding schemes or data formats. For instance, if one system uses EBCDIC and another uses ASCII, the Presentation layer facilitates conversion so both systems can interpret the data accurately.

• Data Encryption/Decryption: The Presentation layer is responsible for encrypting data before it is transmitted and decrypting data upon reception. This ensures data confidentiality, especially when secure communication protocols like SSL or TLS are in use.

• Data Compression: By reducing the size of the data before transmission, the Presentation layer helps improve efficiency and reduce bandwidth usage.

Now, let's briefly review the incorrect options:

• A. Transport layer (Layer 4) is concerned with the reliable transmission of data between systems, including error correction, segmentation, and reassembly. However, it does not handle encryption or data translation.

• C. Data-link layer (Layer 2) manages MAC addressing and error detection at the frame level for node-to-node communication on a local network. It does not perform encryption or compression.

• D. Network layer (Layer 3) focuses on routing and logical addressing (e.g., IP addressing). While essential for delivering data across different networks, it has no responsibility for transforming or securing the content of that data.

In conclusion, the Presentation layer is tasked with translating, securing, and compressing data so it is correctly formatted and secure during transmission. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Question 4:

You are tasked with securing your company’s web applications and want to find vulnerabilities that might let an attacker infiltrate your network. 

Which approach would be most effective at uncovering these flaws?

A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Manual penetration testing
C. Automated penetration testing
D. Code review

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Securing web applications involves identifying flaws that could be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access or control. Among the various assessment methods available, manual penetration testing is the most thorough and effective for simulating real-world attacks against web applications.

Manual penetration testing involves human security experts who manually probe the application’s logic, configuration, and behavior. This hands-on testing allows for deep analysis of how an application behaves under various attack scenarios. Manual testers can:

• Identify complex vulnerabilities such as insecure authentication, authorization bypass, or business logic flaws.

• Simulate multi-step attack chains by chaining several minor vulnerabilities to compromise the system.

• Recognize issues that tools miss, such as IDOR (Insecure Direct Object Reference), CSRF, or multi-factor authentication weaknesses.

Let’s examine why other methods fall short:

• A. Vulnerability scanning is automated and scans against known vulnerability signatures. While useful for detecting common issues and performing regular assessments, it lacks the depth to uncover context-specific flaws or creative attack chains. It may also produce false positives or miss zero-day vulnerabilities.

• C. Automated penetration testing uses tools that simulate some attack behaviors. While it goes further than vulnerability scanning, it still lacks the adaptability and intelligence of a human tester. Automated tools might not fully explore dynamic application logic or edge cases in user input validation.

• D. Code review involves reviewing source code to identify insecure coding practices. While valuable in the development phase, code review cannot uncover deployment-related vulnerabilities or runtime behaviors like session handling or web server misconfigurations. It also does not simulate how an attacker would exploit discovered flaws.

Web applications are often dynamic, complex, and interconnected with various backend services. Attackers exploit misconfigurations, logic flaws, or unvalidated inputs. Manual penetration testers simulate such behaviors, using their knowledge of systems, coding, and attack patterns to find critical vulnerabilities.

In short, manual penetration testing offers the most detailed and context-aware evaluation of web application security and is best suited for identifying flaws that could allow attackers to infiltrate your network. Thus, the correct answer is B.

Question 5:

Which member of the incident response team is tasked with creating forensic system backups during a security incident investigation?

A Lead investigator
B Information security representative
C Technical representative
D Legal representative

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

During a cybersecurity incident, maintaining a structured and efficient response process is critical to minimizing damage, identifying causes, and preserving evidence for future investigation or legal action. An incident response team (IRT) typically includes various specialists, each with defined roles, from legal advisors to security analysts and technical personnel. When it comes to creating forensic backups—a precise, technical task that requires accuracy and compliance—the responsibility lies with the technical representative.

A forensic backup is a comprehensive, bit-by-bit image of a system’s data environment. This process captures all digital information, including deleted files, system metadata, and hidden files, to ensure no potential evidence is lost. These backups are essential in legal investigations and internal audits because they preserve the integrity of the data exactly as it existed at the time of the incident.

The technical representative is equipped with the tools, expertise, and permissions to perform such tasks. They use specialized forensic software such as EnCase, FTK Imager, or Autopsy to:

• Acquire system images

• Validate data integrity using cryptographic hashes

• Document the chain of custody to maintain evidence authenticity

• Analyze volatile and non-volatile data sources

This person may also assist in isolating compromised systems, collecting logs, and executing live response procedures. Their primary focus is to support the investigation by supplying clean, admissible evidence.

The other roles do not perform this function:

• A. Lead investigator oversees the entire incident response effort, directing tasks and ensuring timelines are met. While they may coordinate the forensic process, they do not perform backups themselves.

• B. Information security representative ensures compliance with policies and best practices. They help assess the impact of the breach and advise on risk, but they are not directly involved in forensic data collection.

• D. Legal representative provides guidance on regulatory compliance and legal risk. They may review the chain of custody or advise on privacy concerns but do not execute technical procedures like backup imaging.

Therefore, due to the technical precision and forensic knowledge required, the technical representative is the team member responsible for creating forensic backups, making C the correct answer.

Question 6:

Which of the following statements about router functionality are accurate? (Choose all that apply.)

A Routers decide the path network traffic should take.
B Routers do not restrict broadcast traffic.
C Routers use address structures to determine how to route packets.
D Routers connect different network protocols and perform translation.

Correct Answers: A, C, D

Explanation:

Routers are fundamental devices used in both small and large networks to direct data traffic between different network segments or the internet. Their main role is to make decisions about how to forward data packets to their destination using logical addressing (such as IP addresses) and routing protocols.

Let’s evaluate each statement in detail:

A. Routers decide the path network traffic should take.
This is a core function of a router. Routers inspect the destination IP address of each packet and consult their routing table to determine the best path to forward that packet. They use dynamic routing protocols like OSPF, BGP, or RIP to learn and optimize paths. Routers can also enforce routing policies based on metrics such as hop count, delay, and administrative preferences.

B. Routers do not restrict broadcast traffic.
This is incorrect. Routers actually act as barriers to broadcast traffic. Unlike switches and hubs, which propagate broadcast frames within a LAN, routers separate broadcast domains. This behavior improves network efficiency by preventing broadcast storms and reducing unnecessary traffic in unrelated segments.

C. Routers use address structures to determine how to route packets.
Correct. Routers analyze the IP address and subnet mask of incoming packets to determine the destination network. Historically, routers used classful addressing (e.g., Class A, B, C), though modern routing is based on CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing). Regardless of the method, routers evaluate address structures to calculate the next hop.

D. Routers connect different network protocols and perform translation.
This is also correct. In more complex environments, routers can translate between different network protocols, such as between IPv4 and IPv6, or between proprietary and open standards. This capability is important when integrating diverse network types or performing NAT (Network Address Translation), which modifies packet headers to enable communication between private and public networks.

In summary:

• A, C, and D are accurate and reflect common router capabilities.

• B is false because routers do limit and block broadcast traffic across different networks.

Thus, the correct answers are: A, C, D.

Question 7:

Which of the following types of attacks relies on exploiting human behavior and cannot be entirely mitigated through technical safeguards alone?

A. Brute force
B. Ping flood attack
C. Smurf DoS
D. Social engineering

Answer: D

Explanation:

In cybersecurity, attacks can be broadly categorized into those that target technical vulnerabilities and those that exploit the human element. While most technical attacks can be effectively neutralized using firewalls, intrusion detection systems, and access controls, social engineering attacks are a unique challenge because they manipulate people rather than systems.

Let’s examine the given options to determine which type of attack cannot be fully prevented through technical defenses:

A. Brute force:
A brute force attack involves an attacker systematically trying all possible combinations of passwords to gain access to an account or system. This is a technical attack, and various technical countermeasures can significantly mitigate or even prevent it, such as:

• Implementing account lockout policies

• Requiring multi-factor authentication (MFA)

• Using CAPTCHA systems

• Enforcing strong password policies

These controls can be embedded directly into authentication systems, effectively thwarting brute force attempts.

B. Ping flood attack:
This is a type of Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack that overwhelms a system with ICMP Echo Request (ping) packets. It is purely technical and can be mitigated by:

• Firewall rules that limit or block ICMP traffic

• Rate-limiting tools

• IDS/IPS systems that detect and block unusual traffic patterns

C. Smurf DoS:
In this variant of a DoS attack, attackers send spoofed ICMP packets to broadcast addresses, causing multiple devices to flood the victim’s system with responses. This attack can be countered using:

• Ingress and egress filtering

• Disabling IP-directed broadcasts

• Deploying network-level protections like IPS

D. Social engineering:
This is the only non-technical attack in the list. Social engineering tactics aim to deceive individuals into revealing confidential information or performing actions that compromise security. Examples include:

• Phishing emails

• Pretexting and impersonation

• Tailgating and baiting

While technical tools like spam filters or endpoint protection can reduce exposure to such attacks, they cannot eliminate them entirely. A well-crafted phishing email may bypass filters, and no firewall can prevent a phone scam. The most effective defense is security awareness training, well-defined policies, and fostering a culture of vigilance among staff.

Thus, only social engineering requires non-technical defenses to be adequately addressed, making D the correct answer.

Question 8:

While setting up ISA Server 2006 to protect a company’s wireless network, which of the following steps is NOT mandatory as part of the basic firewall configuration?

A. Configuring caching behavior for web content
B. Defining ISA Server’s network topology
C. Enabling monitoring and reporting features
D. Setting up VPN access

Answer: D

Explanation:

ISA Server 2006 (Internet Security and Acceleration Server) functions as a firewall, proxy server, and optionally, a VPN server. It offers a robust platform for securing network perimeters and managing traffic flows. When deploying ISA Server primarily as a firewall to protect a wireless network, some configuration elements are essential, while others are optional depending on the organization’s needs.

Let’s examine each option to identify which step is not required for basic firewall setup:

A. Configuring caching behavior for web content:
ISA Server is also capable of caching web content, which improves network performance by storing frequently accessed data locally. While web caching may not be critical in every setup, it is commonly reviewed and adjusted, especially when ISA is used as a web proxy. Hence, this is typically included in configurations where web performance matters.

B. Defining ISA Server’s network topology:
This is a critical and non-optional step. During initial setup, administrators must define network roles such as Internal, External, and Perimeter (DMZ). ISA Server uses this information to determine how to process, filter, and route traffic. Without this setup, the firewall cannot enforce rules or function properly.

C. Enabling monitoring and reporting features:
Monitoring tools in ISA Server allow administrators to track real-time traffic, log security events, and identify potential intrusions. While ISA Server will still function without logging, enabling monitoring is considered a best practice for any firewall deployment. It is essential for ongoing maintenance and detecting abnormal activity.

D. Setting up VPN access:
This is the only optional feature among the listed choices. ISA Server supports VPN configuration for remote users, but this is not a required component if the system is being set up solely to secure local network traffic, such as a wireless LAN. VPN setup is only necessary if the organization intends to allow remote access via secure tunnels.

In conclusion, when the ISA Server is deployed for local firewall purposes without remote access needs, VPN configuration is not essential. Thus, the correct answer is D.

Question 9:

Which of the following attack methods are outside the detection scope of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

A. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
B. E-mail spoofing
C. Port scanning
D. Shoulder surfing

Correct Answers: B, D

Explanation:

An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is designed to monitor, log, and identify suspicious or malicious activities occurring within a network or on a host system. It typically observes packet flows, system logs, and traffic patterns to detect known threats or anomalies. However, its effectiveness is limited to digital, network-visible behavior—it cannot identify attacks that are non-network-based or purely application-level unless extended with specialized tools.

Let's examine each option:

A. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
A DoS attack aims to disrupt service availability by overwhelming a system or network with a flood of traffic. Since IDS solutions actively monitor traffic volume and packet anomalies, they can detect unusual spikes in requests, such as repeated SYN packets or ICMP floods. Therefore, this attack is detectable by IDS, and this is not a correct answer.

B. E-mail spoofing
Email spoofing involves forging an email header to make it appear as if it came from a trusted source. IDS tools generally monitor network-level protocols, not the payload or header fields of email messages. Even when email messages pass through an IDS-monitored channel, spoofing may appear legitimate unless additional security layers like SPF, DKIM, or DMARC are implemented. Therefore, IDS cannot reliably detect email spoofing, making this a correct answer.

C. Port scanning
Port scanning is a network reconnaissance tactic where an attacker sends requests to multiple ports to identify open or vulnerable services. IDS tools are especially effective at detecting such behavior by flagging rapid or unusual connection attempts to multiple ports, making this attack detectable, and hence not a correct answer.

D. Shoulder surfing
This attack is purely physical—where someone watches a user enter a password or sensitive data by looking over their shoulder. Since this activity occurs outside of the digital network, it is completely invisible to any IDS system, making this a correct answer.

Summary: IDS tools can identify traffic anomalies and known patterns associated with DoS and port scans. However, email spoofing and shoulder surfing are outside their operational range, as one is application-layer deception and the other is physical observation.

Question 10:

What best defines the role of a certification authority within a cybersecurity framework?

A. A form of encryption that uses a public and private key pair
B. A trusted entity that issues digital certificates to users and systems
C. A method for verifying documents using cryptographic signatures
D. A symmetric encryption algorithm used in secure data exchange

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

A Certification Authority (CA) is a core component of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), which underpins secure communication over the internet. The main responsibility of a CA is to verify the identity of individuals, websites, or systems and then issue digital certificates that bind a verified identity to a public key. These certificates facilitate encrypted communication and authentication, ensuring trust between parties.

Let’s analyze each option:

A. A form of encryption that uses a public and private key pair
This describes asymmetric encryption, not the CA itself. While CAs operate within an asymmetric encryption framework, they do not perform encryption. Instead, they manage certificates that include public keys used in such encryption processes. Thus, this answer is incorrect.

B. A trusted entity that issues digital certificates to users and systems
This is the correct and complete definition. A CA authenticates the certificate requestor’s identity and issues a signed digital certificate. Common use cases include securing websites via HTTPS, signing software to verify authenticity, or encrypting emails. For instance, when accessing a secure site, your browser checks the site's certificate to ensure it was signed by a trusted CA like DigiCert or Let's Encrypt.

Key responsibilities of a CA:

• Verifying applicant identities

• Issuing certificates with expiration dates and usage parameters

• Revoking compromised certificates via Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs) or Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP)

• Ensuring the certificate lifecycle is managed securely

C. A method for verifying documents using cryptographic signatures
While related to cryptography, this describes digital signatures, not a CA itself. CAs enable the use of digital signatures by providing the trusted certificates required for them, but the process of signing and verifying documents is separate. Thus, this is incorrect.

D. A symmetric encryption algorithm used in secure data exchange
This describes symmetric encryption, which uses the same key for encryption and decryption. It is unrelated to the role of a certification authority, making this incorrect as well.

The certification authority is not an encryption method or process—it is a trusted third party that validates identities and issues certificates used in secure communication. Only Option B correctly defines its role in cybersecurity and PKI ecosystems.