CyberArk EPM-DEF Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Which CyberArk Endpoint Privilege Manager (EPM) feature should a Helpdesk technician use to grant elevation rights to a user whose laptop cannot access the Internet to retrieve EPM policies?

A. Offline Policy Authorization Generator
B. Elevate Trusted Application If Necessary
C. Just In Time Access and Elevation
D. Loosely Connected Devices Credential Management

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In this scenario, the critical challenge is that the user’s laptop lacks Internet connectivity and cannot retrieve CyberArk EPM policies remotely. The Helpdesk technician still needs to provide the user with elevation rights despite this lack of network access. The most appropriate CyberArk EPM feature for this situation is the Offline Policy Authorization Generator (Option A).

The Offline Policy Authorization Generator is specifically designed for offline or disconnected environments. It allows Helpdesk staff to create offline authorization files that can be manually transferred to the affected device. These files grant the necessary elevation permissions locally, without requiring the device to communicate with the central EPM server or the Internet. This capability is vital in environments where devices are temporarily offline, such as in secure or remote locations.

Option B, Elevate Trusted Application If Necessary, focuses on automatically granting elevation to pre-approved applications when required, but it does not assist in offline user elevation scenarios. It’s more about simplifying privilege elevation for known safe applications rather than manual elevation for users in disconnected environments.

Option C, Just In Time Access and Elevation, provides temporary, controlled privilege elevation to users, but this feature depends on live connectivity with the CyberArk system to request and grant access. Since the laptop is offline, this feature cannot function properly.

Option D, Loosely Connected Devices Credential Management, is designed to handle credential management on devices that have intermittent connectivity. While it helps manage credentials, it doesn’t provide direct elevation capabilities in an offline scenario.

Thus, Option A best fits the requirement, enabling a Helpdesk technician to maintain security while overcoming the connectivity limitation by providing offline elevation authorizations.

Question 2:

Which user or group is exempt from removal when using CyberArk EPM’s "Remove Local Administrators" feature?

A. Built-in Local Administrator
B. Domain Users
C. Admin Users
D. Power Users

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

CyberArk Endpoint Privilege Manager (EPM) offers the ability to tighten security by removing unnecessary local administrator rights from users and groups on endpoints. This helps reduce risks by enforcing the principle of least privilege and preventing unauthorized access. However, some accounts are protected from removal because they are essential for system stability and recovery.

The Built-in Local Administrator account (Option A) is a default, special system account created automatically when the operating system is installed. It holds the highest level of local administrative privileges and is critical for performing system recovery, maintenance, and troubleshooting tasks. Because of its importance, CyberArk EPM deliberately excludes this account from removal actions to avoid locking out administrators and ensure that system management remains possible even if other accounts are restricted.

On the other hand, Domain Users (Option B) is a broad group that includes all users within a domain. If members of this group are assigned local administrator privileges, CyberArk EPM’s removal feature will revoke those rights to enhance security.

Similarly, Admin Users (Option C), typically users with administrative privileges either locally or in the domain, will be removed if present in the local administrators group, as their permissions may be excessive or unnecessary.

Power Users (Option D), who have elevated but limited rights, are also subject to removal to minimize privilege creep and enforce tighter control over system access.

In summary, only the Built-in Local Administrator account is protected from removal to preserve system integrity and ensure administrators always have at least one reliable, fully privileged local account.

Question 3:

An end user reports that an application requiring administrative privileges crashes when selecting a particular menu option. The application uses an advanced elevate policy and otherwise works correctly. 

What is the most likely cause of this problem within the EPM configuration?

A The advanced policy’s user list does not include the end user running the application
B The advanced time settings do not cover the time when the user is running the app
C The Elevate Child Processes option is disabled
D The “Specify permissions for selected services” setting is set to Allow Start/Stop

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In this scenario, the application functions correctly except when a specific menu item is selected, causing it to crash. Given that the app requires administrative rights and is governed by an advanced elevate policy (EPM), this strongly suggests a permission-related issue linked to that policy.

The advanced elevate policy defines which users can run certain applications with elevated privileges. If the user running the application is not included in the list of permitted users within the advanced policy, they will lack the necessary permissions to perform actions that require administrative rights. This lack of permission typically causes the application to crash or fail when attempting to execute those privileged actions, such as selecting a menu option requiring elevated access. Therefore, option A is the most probable root cause.

Looking at the other options:

• B suggests that the time settings might restrict when the policy applies. While misconfigured time restrictions could prevent an application from running during certain hours, it usually would block access entirely rather than cause a crash on a specific menu action.

• C relates to the Elevate Child Processes setting, which allows child processes spawned by the app to inherit elevated permissions. This could cause issues if child processes fail, but the problem here is triggered by a menu selection, not by process spawning, making this less likely.

• D refers to permissions on services, which would not generally cause an application to crash on menu item use unless the menu triggers a service start/stop action, which is not specified here.

In conclusion, if the user is not included in the advanced policy’s user list, they will not have the rights needed for that menu option, causing the crash. This confirms A as the correct answer.

Question 4:

Which configuration setting determines how often the agent transmits collected events to the Enterprise Performance Management (EPM) server?

A Event Queue Flush Period
B Heartbeat Timeout
C Condition Timeout
D Policy Update Rate

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

This question asks which agent setting controls the frequency at which event data is sent to the Enterprise Performance Management (EPM) server. Understanding the purpose of each setting helps clarify the correct choice.

• Event Queue Flush Period defines the time interval after which the agent sends all accumulated events from its event queue to the EPM server. The agent collects events during operation and periodically flushes this queue by transmitting the events in batches. This setting directly controls how frequently event data is sent, making it the correct answer.

• Heartbeat Timeout refers to the interval between heartbeat signals that the agent sends to the server to indicate it is alive and functioning. While important for monitoring agent health and connectivity, this does not affect how often event data is sent.

• Condition Timeout deals with how long the agent waits before considering a particular condition or event as expired or invalid. It relates more to internal event handling logic rather than data transmission frequency.

• Policy Update Rate specifies how often the agent checks for updates to its policy configuration. Although critical for keeping the agent’s behavior current, it does not determine event transmission intervals.

To summarize, the Event Queue Flush Period controls the agent’s event transmission timing by determining how often accumulated events are sent to the EPM server. Adjusting this setting will directly affect the regularity of event reporting, making A the precise and accurate choice for this question.

Question 5:

Which of the following sets of application attributes is typically used when specifying trusted sources?

A Publisher, Product, Size, URL
B Publisher, Name, Size, URI
C Product, URL, Machine, Package
D Product, Publisher, User/Group, Installation Package

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

When setting up trusted sources for software installation or execution, it is important to define attributes that ensure the software’s legitimacy and secure origin. Among the options given, the combination of Product, Publisher, User/Group, and Installation Package (option D) is the most comprehensive and reliable for this purpose.

• Product refers to the specific software or application being installed. It ensures that only authorized software products are allowed to run on the system.

• Publisher indicates the entity responsible for creating or distributing the software. Trusting a publisher usually involves verifying their digital signature or certificate, which authenticates the source and guarantees the software is from a legitimate vendor.

• User/Group represents the users or groups allowed to install or execute the software, enabling control over who can interact with the trusted application, adding an extra layer of security.

• Installation Package is the actual file or package that contains the software. By verifying trusted installation packages, you prevent unauthorized or potentially malicious software from being installed.

Now, let's consider why the other choices are less effective:

• Option A (Publisher, Product, Size, URL): While publisher and product are important, size is unreliable because file size can be manipulated. URL is also insecure as it can be spoofed or changed.

• Option B (Publisher, Name, Size, URI): Similar to A, size and URI (a broader identifier than URL) do not reliably confirm trustworthiness. Names can be ambiguous and size is easily altered.

• Option C (Product, URL, Machine, Package): Although product and package are valid, URL and machine attributes are not sufficient to define trusted sources. URLs can be redirected or spoofed, and machine information alone cannot guarantee software authenticity.

In conclusion, option D provides the most robust criteria to define trusted sources, combining identity (publisher, product), access control (user/group), and package integrity (installation package). This combination helps safeguard systems against unauthorized or malicious software, making it the best choice.

Question 6:

Which component of an Enterprise Password Management (EPM) system is responsible for transmitting password changes during credential rotation?

A EPM Agent
B EPM Server
C EPM API
D EPM Discovery

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Within an Enterprise Password Management system, the EPM Agent plays a critical role in the actual communication of password changes during credential rotation. Credential rotation refers to the process of regularly updating passwords to reduce the risk of unauthorized access or credential theft. The EPM Agent acts as the operational workhorse that ensures new passwords are consistently propagated to all relevant systems and applications that depend on these credentials.

The EPM Agent runs on target machines or interfaces with systems to apply the updated passwords, making sure that all necessary components reflect the change simultaneously. This synchronization prevents authentication failures and reduces security vulnerabilities caused by outdated credentials.

To clarify the roles of other components:

• The EPM Server manages the overall system, orchestrating policies, schedules, and configurations related to password management. However, it does not directly perform the task of sending password changes to individual systems.

• The EPM API serves as an integration layer, allowing other applications or services to interact with the EPM platform. It facilitates communication but does not execute the password update process itself.

• EPM Discovery is responsible for scanning and identifying systems or applications that require password management. It does not manage password changes but ensures the environment is properly mapped for management.

Without the EPM Agent, there would be no direct mechanism to enforce password updates across diverse systems, leaving security gaps open. By continuously communicating and applying updated credentials, the EPM Agent ensures secure and efficient password rotation, which is fundamental to robust enterprise security practices.

Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Question 7:

Where should an EPM Administrator configure settings to notify end users when the Elevate policy grants elevated privileges to their applications?

A End-user UI option in the console’s left-hand panel
B Advanced settings under Agent Configurations
C Default Policies section
D End-User UI settings within the specific policy

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

When managing Endpoint Privilege Management (EPM), it’s important to notify users when their applications receive elevated permissions through the Elevate policy. This notification provides transparency and helps users understand when their software gains higher privileges, which can be critical for security awareness.

The correct place to configure this notification is within the End-User UI section inside the policy itself (Option D). This area allows the administrator to enable or customize dialogs that appear to users when elevation occurs. It directly links the notification to the policy controlling the elevation, ensuring users are informed exactly when and why elevation happens.

Let’s consider the other options:

• Option A refers to a general End-User UI section found in the console’s left panel. This area may manage overall UI settings or user interaction preferences, but it’s not the place to enable specific elevation notifications linked to the Elevate policy.

• Option B concerns Advanced Agent Configurations, which are typically focused on the agent’s behavior and technical setup rather than user-facing dialogs about privilege changes. This backend configuration does not usually control user notifications tied to policies.

• Option C points to Default Policies, which define baseline rules but generally don’t control UI interactions. While important for policy management, it lacks the specific user dialog settings needed for elevation notifications.

In summary, enabling user notifications for privilege elevation is best done within the policy’s End-User UI settings, making Option D the most precise and effective choice. This ensures users receive real-time alerts about elevation events tied directly to the governing policy, supporting transparency and security awareness across the user base.

Question 8:

According to CyberArk, what is the recommended initial step for implementing privileged access security?

A Deploy Application Control
B Deploy Privilege Management
C Deploy Threat Detection
D Deploy Ransomware Protection

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

CyberArk, a leader in privileged access management, advises organizations to begin their privileged access security rollout by implementing Privilege Management (Option B). This strategy focuses on enforcing the principle of least privilege—granting users only the access they need to perform their roles, and nothing more. By limiting privileges, the attack surface shrinks, reducing the risk of malicious or accidental misuse of powerful credentials.

Privilege Management governs who can access sensitive systems and controls what actions they are allowed to perform. It also includes monitoring these activities to detect suspicious behavior. Since privileged accounts like administrator or root users hold keys to critical infrastructure, securing them first establishes a strong defensive foundation against internal threats and external attackers who may compromise credentials.

Why are the other options less suitable as the initial step?

• Application Control (A) restricts which software can run on endpoints, which is important but best implemented after privilege management. Attackers often exploit privileged accounts first, so controlling privilege levels tackles the root of many breaches earlier.

• Threat Detection (C) involves identifying malicious activity, but without first controlling privilege misuse, detecting threats can be difficult or too late. Effective threat detection depends on having well-managed accounts to monitor.

• Ransomware Protection (D) is a vital defense but more specialized. Without securing privileged accounts, ransomware attacks can still succeed by leveraging compromised credentials to spread or escalate privileges.

Therefore, CyberArk recommends starting with Privilege Management to establish a secure baseline. Once privileged access is tightly controlled, other layers like application control, threat detection, and ransomware protection can be introduced more effectively, creating a comprehensive security posture.

Question 9:

Which configuration should an EPM Administrator adjust to ensure a specific file extension is included for monitoring and protection under Ransomware Protection?

A Authorized Applications (Ransomware Protection)
B Files to be Ignored Always
C Anti-tampering Protection
D Default Policies

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

When an Enterprise Privilege Management (EPM) Administrator wants to include a particular file extension in the scope of ransomware protection, the correct setting to configure is Authorized Applications (Ransomware Protection). This configuration allows administrators to specify which applications or file types should be actively monitored and safeguarded against ransomware attacks.

Ransomware protection systems work by closely watching files that are considered important or vulnerable, and they need clear instructions on which file extensions to guard. By adding specific file extensions under the Authorized Applications setting, the system can apply focused security measures such as real-time scanning, behavioral monitoring, and blocking unauthorized changes to those files. This helps prevent ransomware from encrypting or corrupting critical data with targeted ransomware defenses.

In contrast, the Files to be Ignored Always option (choice B) does the opposite—it excludes certain files from protection. Using this setting for the file extension in question would leave those files vulnerable to attack because the ransomware protection would bypass them entirely.

The Anti-tampering Protection setting (choice C) is intended to protect the security product itself from unauthorized changes or disabling attempts. While important, it does not control which file extensions are monitored under ransomware protection.

Lastly, Default Policies (choice D) provide a general baseline level of protection but do not allow for granular customization like specifying additional file extensions to monitor. To actively protect files with a given extension, the administrator must adjust the Authorized Applications settings.

Therefore, to ensure that a specific file extension is included in ransomware defenses, configuring the Authorized Applications (Ransomware Protection) is the proper and effective choice.

Question 10:

In the Privilege Management stage of deploying EPM, what is the primary objective of the Discovery process?

A To identify all non-administrative events
B To identify all administrative level events
C To identify both administrative and non-administrative level events
D To identify non-administrative threats

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

During the deployment of Enterprise Privilege Management (EPM), the Privilege Management phase is focused on securing and managing privileged access to critical systems. One of the foundational activities in this phase is the Discovery process. Its purpose is to collect detailed data about user activities, covering all levels of system interaction.

The Discovery step aims to identify both administrative and non-administrative events. This means it monitors actions taken by users with elevated privileges (administrators) as well as standard users without admin rights. Gathering comprehensive visibility into all these activities enables security teams to fully understand how the system is being accessed and used, which is essential for setting up appropriate privilege controls and monitoring.

Reviewing the answer options:

• A (non-administrative events only) is too limited because focusing solely on regular user events would miss critical insights about privileged users, who typically pose the highest risk.

• B (administrative events only) is also incomplete, since understanding normal user behavior helps establish a baseline and detect anomalies.

• C (both administrative and non-administrative events) correctly reflects the Discovery phase’s broad scope and is the best answer.

• D (non-administrative threats) misunderstands the goal—Discovery is about identifying and collecting data on all relevant events, not just threats or limited to non-admin users.

By identifying all relevant user activities at both privilege levels, Discovery helps create a thorough picture of system usage. This comprehensive insight is critical for configuring privilege policies, detecting improper access, enforcing the principle of least privilege, and ultimately improving the organization’s security posture. Hence, option C best describes the purpose of the Discovery process in EPM’s Privilege Management phase.