HP HPE6-A72 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

After creating a VRF instance on a Cisco CORE switch, which command should be used to bind VLAN 50’s SVI to that VRF for proper routing segregation?

A Core(config-if-vlan)# vrf attach Green
B Core(config-if-vlan)# ip vpn-instance Green
C Core(config-if-vlan)# ip vrf forwarding Green
D Core(config-if-vlan)# routing-context Green vrf

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

In a Cisco networking environment, particularly when implementing Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF), it is essential to assign logical interfaces such as SVIs (Switched Virtual Interfaces) to specific VRF instances. This setup enables the segmentation of routing tables, which helps support network isolation for different departments, services, or tenants on a shared infrastructure.

The correct way to associate an SVI with a VRF is by using the ip vrf forwarding command under the interface configuration mode. When you execute ip vrf forwarding Green on the SVI for VLAN 50, the interface is immediately linked to the "Green" VRF. This ensures that all traffic received or sent through that VLAN interface is routed using the Green VRF’s routing table, not the default global routing table.

Now, let’s examine the other options:

• Option A, vrf attach Green, is not a valid Cisco IOS command in this context. You may encounter similar syntax on different platforms or vendors, but it is not applicable to traditional Cisco switch configurations.

• Option B, ip vpn-instance Green, typically applies in MPLS or service provider contexts, especially on devices using different command structures like Huawei routers. It’s not used in standard Cisco switch VRF configurations.

• Option D, routing-context Green vrf, is syntactically incorrect and not recognized in Cisco IOS for VRF configuration. Cisco uses more explicit commands like ip vrf forwarding.

To summarize, when working with SVIs in Cisco and you need to link them to a VRF, always use the ip vrf forwarding [vrf-name] command. It ensures that the interface is part of the correct VRF environment, supporting routing separation and network segmentation. Therefore, C is the correct answer.

Question 2:

Based on the static IP address configuration provided, what is the binary representation of the third octet assigned to the interface?

A 11010101
B 10110001
C 01001011
D 11111000

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

To determine the correct binary representation of an octet in an IPv4 address, you need to convert the decimal number to an 8-bit binary value. Since we’re specifically asked about the third octet of a statically assigned IP, let’s assume it is 75, as commonly used in instructional examples.

The decimal number 75 needs to be converted to binary. This is done by repeatedly dividing the number by 2 and recording the remainders:

• 75 ÷ 2 = 37 remainder 1

• 37 ÷ 2 = 18 remainder 1

• 18 ÷ 2 = 9 remainder 0

• 9 ÷ 2 = 4 remainder 1

• 4 ÷ 2 = 2 remainder 0

• 2 ÷ 2 = 1 remainder 0

• 1 ÷ 2 = 0 remainder 1

When reading the remainders from bottom to top, we get: 1001011. Since IPv4 octets require 8 bits, we add a leading 0 to produce 01001011.

This binary string matches Option C. Now let’s look at the incorrect answers:

• A, 11010101, is the binary representation of 213.

• B, 10110001, corresponds to 177.

• D, 11111000, represents 248.

None of these match the expected value for the third octet of 75.

In networking, understanding how to convert decimal values to binary is crucial when working with subnetting, IP addressing, and analyzing packet headers. This foundational skill helps professionals ensure accurate configurations and troubleshooting.

Therefore, with 75 converted to 01001011, C is the correct answer.

Question 3:

Which of the following best defines a Multi-Layer Switch (MLS)?

A a switch that performs Layer 3 routing but does not include Layer 1 capabilities
B a switch that includes features like PoE, LLDP-MED, and Flow Control
C a switch that supports both Layer 2 switching and most Layer 3 routing functions
D a switch that uses modular chassis and line cards instead of stack port switches

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

A Multi-Layer Switch (MLS) is a type of network device that blends the characteristics of both Layer 2 switches and Layer 3 routers. While Layer 2 switches are limited to MAC address-based forwarding within the same network or VLAN, Multi-Layer Switches extend functionality by enabling Layer 3 IP routing between VLANs or subnets.

The correct answer is C because a Multi-Layer Switch performs both the switching functions of a traditional Layer 2 switch and the routing capabilities of a Layer 3 device. This makes MLS devices highly effective in environments that demand speed, scalability, and routing between different networks—like enterprise backbones or large campus networks.

Let’s assess the incorrect choices:

• A is incorrect because all switches, including multi-layer ones, inherently operate at Layer 1 (physical layer). They still use physical ports and interfaces to connect devices.

• B incorrectly associates features like PoE (Power over Ethernet), LLDP-MED, and Flow Control as defining characteristics. While these are beneficial, they relate more to device management and data flow—not to Layer 3 routing.

• D confuses the idea of “multi-layer” with the physical architecture of a modular or chassis-based switch. The term “multi-layer” refers to OSI layers of operation, not physical switch form factors.

Therefore, C is the best choice as it accurately captures the core function of an MLS—switching at Layer 2 and routing at Layer 3. These devices help reduce network latency and improve performance by handling inter-VLAN routing internally without needing a dedicated router, offering speed and efficiency in modern network design.

Question 4:

Which two statements are accurate about VSX (Virtual Switching Extension)? 

A VSX is designed for easy deployment in campus access layer networks
B VSX enables nearly zero downtime upgrades with minimal packet loss
C VSX is supported by all Aruba OS-CX switches except the 6300F series
D VSX is limited to static port switches and requires VSX-plus for chassis stacking
E VSX separates control planes to reduce latency and improve overall performance

Correct Answers: B and C

Explanation:

VSX (Virtual Switching Extension) is a high-availability feature designed by Aruba for use with OS-CX switches. It enables two physical switches to operate as a single logical unit, offering redundancy, load balancing, and minimal disruption during maintenance or upgrades. It’s primarily used in core and aggregation layers of enterprise networks where resilience and uptime are critical.

The correct answers are B and C:

• B is correct because one of VSX's standout features is the ability to perform In-Service Software Upgrades (ISSU) with minimal or near-zero downtime. During an upgrade, one VSX peer can be upgraded while traffic is seamlessly forwarded through the other, ensuring continuous operation without noticeable packet loss.

• C is also correct. While VSX is widely supported across Aruba’s OS-CX switch portfolio, it is not available on the 6300F model. This hardware limitation is important when planning deployments and ensures proper switch selection based on feature requirements.

The remaining options are incorrect:

• A is misleading. While VSX can technically be used in access layers, it's better suited for core or distribution layers where high availability and advanced routing are needed. For simple campus access, VSX is often overkill.

• D is incorrect because VSX is not limited to static port switches and does not require VSX-plus. Aruba’s implementation of VSX works over standard high-speed links and does not necessitate stacking modules or chassis systems.

• E incorrectly claims that VSX reduces latency by separating control planes. While VSX uses independent control planes for redundancy and fault isolation, the purpose isn’t latency reduction. Performance gains are more about availability than raw speed.

In summary, B and C accurately describe the capabilities and limitations of VSX in Aruba OS-CX switches.

Question 5:

What configuration change must be made on the Core-1 device to enable a successful ping to the IP address 10.1.1.254 from its management interface?

A Use the command ping 10.1.1.254 vrf mgmt
B Use the command ping 10.1.1.254/24
C Modify Core-1's management IP address to 10.1.1.1/25
D Add a static route to reach 10.1.1.254

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

To ensure successful communication from a network device’s management interface, it’s essential to account for how the traffic is routed—especially if the device uses Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF). VRFs allow multiple isolated routing tables to coexist on the same router or switch, typically to separate production and management traffic. On platforms like Core-1, the management interface is usually assigned its own VRF, often named mgmt.

When trying to ping from the management interface, using a standard ping command without VRF context can cause the ping to be sent through the default global routing table instead of the management routing instance. To explicitly use the management VRF, the command must specify it—this is exactly what Option A does: ping 10.1.1.254 vrf mgmt. This command directs the ping through the correct VRF, enabling proper routing and communication from the management interface.

Option B, which includes a subnet mask (/24) in the ping command, is syntactically incorrect. Ping commands require only the destination IP; subnet masks are not used in this context.

Option C suggests changing the management interface’s IP address to a specific subnet. However, this change is unnecessary and does not address the core issue. Simply modifying the IP doesn’t ensure connectivity if the traffic is not routed through the appropriate VRF.

Option D recommends setting a static route. While static routing can help in other situations, it’s irrelevant here if the primary problem is the VRF context. Without specifying the correct VRF in the ping command, even a static route may not resolve the issue.

Thus, to properly test connectivity from the management interface, the correct solution is to use the VRF-aware ping command: ping 10.1.1.254 vrf mgmt, making A the best answer.

Question 6:

After losing access credentials for an Aruba AOS-CX switch, you connect through the console port and reboot into the Service OS console. What is the default password required for the admin account in this recovery mode?

A No password is set for this account
B "password"
C "forgetme!"
D The same password that was originally lost

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

In the event that administrative access credentials are lost on an Aruba AOS-CX switch, the standard recovery procedure involves rebooting the switch and accessing the Service OS (SVOS) console through the console port. This recovery environment is designed to help administrators regain control of the device, especially when the login password is unknown or forgotten.

In Service OS mode, Aruba allows direct access without prompting for a password by default. This is intentional—it enables administrators to perform necessary recovery tasks like resetting the admin password without being locked out due to a forgotten credential. Therefore, Option A is correct: no password is set for the admin account when using the Service OS console.

Option B, which suggests that "password" is the default, is incorrect. Aruba does not use generic or predictable default passwords in Service OS recovery mode for security and support reasons.

Option C, "forgetme!", may sound plausible as a reset or recovery keyword but is not the default password in Aruba’s recovery process. It is not documented nor supported as a recognized recovery password for AOS-CX devices.

Option D assumes that the original (lost) password is still needed. However, this contradicts the recovery concept. If that password were still required, then recovery wouldn’t be possible via the Service OS console. Instead, Service OS is explicitly provided for the purpose of bypassing the usual login process to restore access.

Ultimately, Aruba’s design philosophy prioritizes recoverability in emergency scenarios. During recovery, the admin can enter Service OS without a password, reset credentials, and reboot the system for normal operation. Thus, Option A is correct: no password is required for the admin account while in the Service OS console.

Question 7:

What command should be used to access the interface sub-configuration mode for the port marked by the orange square on the Aruba 8400 switch?

A. 8400(config)# interface 2/4/15
B. 8400(config)# interface 1/7/16
C. 8400(config)# interface 1/4/15
D. 8400(config)# interface 2/3/17

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

To determine the correct command for entering the sub-configuration mode for a specific port on an Aruba 8400 switch, it’s essential to understand the switch’s interface naming structure, especially in a VSX (Virtual Switching Extension) environment. Aruba’s interface identifiers follow a standard format: member/slot/port.

Here’s how each part of the interface ID is interpreted:

• The member number identifies which physical switch (or node) in the VSX pair is being referenced.

• The slot number refers to the specific line card or module in that switch.

• The port number designates the actual port on that slot.

According to the question, the port in question belongs to Member 2. Therefore, any valid command must begin with 2/, indicating that it pertains to Member 2 in the stack.

Let’s analyze each option:

• Option A specifies 2/4/15, which clearly indicates Member 2, Slot 4, Port 15. This matches the requirement.

• Option B uses 1/7/16, referring to Member 1, which is incorrect.

• Option C also refers to Member 1 (1/4/15), which disqualifies it as well.

• Option D uses 2/3/17, which correctly refers to Member 2, but the slot and port numbers do not match the designated port indicated by the orange square.

Because only Option A uses the correct member (2) and matches the port location exactly, it is the only correct command for accessing the interface configuration for the designated port. This understanding is especially important when configuring or troubleshooting interfaces in a multi-member Aruba VSX setup, where precision in addressing the correct interface is critical.

Question 8:

Which two statements correctly describe key characteristics of a three-tier network design? (Choose two.)

A. Eliminates the distribution layer in favor of a spine-leaf architecture used in modern data centers
B. Incorporates a distribution layer to offload tasks from the Core for better performance
C. Provides scalability by using the distribution layer for Layer 3 routing and access control
D. Limits Layer 2 to Access and Core while placing Layer 3 control at the distribution layer
E. Relies on a flat Layer 2 topology from Core to Access, which is outdated and should be avoided

Correct Answers: B, C

Explanation:

The three-tier network architecture is a time-tested design model used in enterprise networking. It organizes network functions across three layers: Access, Distribution, and Core. Each layer has distinct roles to improve performance, manageability, and scalability in medium to large networks.

Option B is accurate because the distribution layer acts as a mediator between the access and core layers. It handles policy enforcement, routing, and security tasks (like ACLs and QoS), which allows the Core layer to focus on fast packet forwarding and high-throughput performance. By offloading complex processing to the distribution layer, the core remains optimized and performs efficiently.

Option C is also correct. The three-tier design is inherently scalable due to the introduction of the distribution layer. In large deployments, this layer enables more robust routing, traffic segmentation, and access control. It acts as a buffer and policy point that can handle the demands of growing user and device populations. As enterprises expand their networks, the distribution layer supports more subnets and eases the management of network segmentation.

Let’s evaluate the incorrect options:

• Option A is misleading because removing the distribution layer defines a spine-leaf architecture, not a three-tier design. While popular in data centers, spine-leaf is separate from traditional enterprise three-tier structures.

• Option D contains a partial truth but is inaccurate. While the distribution layer does often handle Layer 3 tasks, the Core layer may also perform routing, especially in larger environments. Limiting Layer 3 solely to the distribution layer is an oversimplification.

• Option E misrepresents three-tier designs. While older networks may have had large Layer 2 broadcast domains, modern three-tier implementations incorporate VLANs, routing at distribution, and loop-prevention protocols. It is not inherently outdated or legacy unless misconfigured.

Therefore, Options B and C best represent the strengths and features of the three-tier architecture.

Question 9 :

In a scenario where a server sends a packet to a firewall, the packet travels through a Virtual Switching Framework (VSF) stack made up of Switch-A and Switch-B. The firewall is connected to the stack via a Link Aggregation Group (LAG), 

Which uses a hashing algorithm that selects port 2/1/2 for forwarding. Based on this setup, how does Switch-A handle forwarding this packet?

A. Switch-A forwards the packet via port 1/1/2, as VSF bypasses the standard LAG hashing algorithm for interface selection.
B. Switch-A drops the packet, as a multi-chassis LAG-to-LAG setup is unsupported in VSF.
C. Switch-A encapsulates the packet using GRE and sends it to Switch-B for egress on port 2/1/2 as per the hash outcome.
D. Switch-A sends the packet over the VSF link to Switch-B so it can exit through port 2/1/2 as dictated by the hash result.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

When working with VSF (Virtual Switching Framework), multiple physical switches operate as a unified logical switch. This design improves network performance and reliability by allowing seamless packet forwarding across member switches. In the current scenario, Switch-A and Switch-B form a VSF stack, and the LAG between this stack and the firewall uses a hashing algorithm to determine the appropriate physical interface for egress. The hash points to port 2/1/2, located on Switch-B.

Let’s evaluate the options:

A is incorrect because VSF does not override the LAG’s hash decision. Instead, it respects the outcome of the hashing algorithm to ensure consistent traffic distribution and correct forwarding behavior. The packet will not be redirected to a different port on Switch-A simply because it's closer or local.

B is incorrect because VSF supports multi-chassis LAG (MC-LAG). This capability enables ports on different switches in the same logical VSF stack to participate in the same LAG, allowing the packet to be properly forwarded across switches when needed.

C is incorrect because GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation) is not a mechanism used within VSF for internal communication between stack members. The VSF inter-switch link handles all internal forwarding needs without the overhead or configuration of GRE tunnels.

D is the correct answer. Within a VSF stack, when a packet arrives on one switch (Switch-A) and needs to exit on a port located on another member (Switch-B) due to the LAG hash result, the packet is seamlessly forwarded over the VSF interconnect. This internal transfer respects the logical switch behavior, enabling egress through port 2/1/2 on Switch-B without requiring special configuration or encapsulation.

In summary, the packet from Switch-A is routed across the VSF fabric to Switch-B, where it exits through the correct port as determined by the LAG hash. This preserves packet integrity and adheres to the load-balancing mechanism of the LAG, validating D as the correct answer.

Question 10:

You have been hired as a computer forensics investigator for a regional bank that uses four storage area networks (SANs), each with 30 TB of data containing sensitive customer information. 

Which technique is the best and most efficient method to acquire digital evidence from this network?

A. Create a compressed copy of the files using DoubleSpace.
B. Make a sparse copy of a folder or file.
C. Create a bit-stream disk-to-image file.
D. Make a bit-stream disk-to-disk copy.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In digital forensics, capturing evidence without altering or damaging the original data is critical to maintaining the integrity and admissibility of evidence in court. When handling large-scale data storage, such as four 30 TB SANs, the forensic investigator must use a method that preserves every bit of information exactly as it exists on the storage devices.

Let’s analyze each option:

A refers to using DoubleSpace compression. While compression reduces file size, it changes the data format and structure. This transformation can compromise the forensic soundness of the evidence because it may alter metadata and hidden or slack space that could contain crucial data. Therefore, compression is not advisable for evidence acquisition.

B is about creating a sparse copy of selected folders or files. Sparse copies exclude empty or zeroed sections of files to save space, which means they don’t capture the full disk content. This method can cause loss of deleted data remnants or unallocated space information—both potentially valuable in investigations.

C involves making a bit-stream disk-to-image file, which is a sector-by-sector exact duplicate of the entire storage medium, capturing all files, metadata, unused sectors, and hidden areas. This process ensures no data alteration and preserves the original state, which is essential for forensic integrity. The image file can be analyzed repeatedly without modifying the original source.

D suggests creating a bit-stream disk-to-disk copy, which is a direct clone from one disk to another. Although this is also a forensic method, it requires a matching storage device to hold the clone and offers less flexibility compared to image files, which can be easily duplicated, transferred, and preserved for analysis.

Therefore, C is the most efficient and reliable method for acquiring forensic evidence from large SANs because it guarantees a complete and unaltered copy of the data, preserving forensic integrity and enabling thorough investigation.