CompTIA N10-008 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

An IT administrator needs to optimize the wireless performance in a busy, multi-level office where network congestion and interference are causing slow connectivity. The network must support various client devices, including older ones that utilize both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies. 

To enhance speed, reduce latency, and ensure efficient operation across all devices and frequency bands, which wireless standard offers the most suitable upgrade?

A. 802.11ac
B. 802.11ax
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The best solution for improving wireless performance in a high-density environment is to implement 802.11ax, commonly known as Wi-Fi 6. This wireless standard was specifically engineered to address issues common in crowded environments, such as slow connections and high interference levels due to multiple simultaneous users.

One of the defining advantages of 802.11ax is its ability to operate on both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. This dual-band capability is critical in environments where older client devices (which may only use 2.4 GHz) coexist with newer ones that can leverage the faster, less crowded 5 GHz band. By maintaining compatibility with legacy devices while still supporting high throughput, 802.11ax offers an inclusive and future-proof upgrade path.

802.11ax introduces several efficiency-enhancing features, including:

• OFDMA (Orthogonal Frequency-Division Multiple Access): Allows the router to serve multiple clients in a single transmission, increasing overall throughput and reducing latency.

• MU-MIMO (Multi-User, Multiple Input, Multiple Output): Enhances performance when multiple users are connected simultaneously by enabling concurrent data streams.
  
  

• TWT (Target Wake Time): Reduces power consumption by scheduling when devices wake to send/receive data—particularly useful for battery-powered and IoT devices.

In comparison:

• 802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5) supports high speeds but is limited to the 5 GHz band, excluding many legacy 2.4 GHz-only devices.

• 802.11n (Wi-Fi 4) supports both frequency bands but lacks the modern enhancements needed for high-density environments.

• 802.11g is outdated, offers only 2.4 GHz support, and provides lower bandwidth, making it unsuitable for modern applications.

In conclusion, 802.11ax delivers significantly better performance in environments with heavy network traffic, mixed device types, and multi-level physical structures. It ensures compatibility, efficiency, and speed—making it the most appropriate standard for demanding wireless deployments.

Question 2:

A network administrator suspects that some devices on the internal network are mimicking legitimate devices by altering their MAC addresses. This tactic, known as MAC spoofing, can bypass access restrictions or monitor traffic. 

Which of the following protocols is most suitable for identifying and mitigating such spoofing attempts?

A. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
B. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
D. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The most effective way to detect MAC address spoofing on a network is by leveraging the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP), particularly when used in conjunction with DHCP snooping or similar monitoring features.

MAC spoofing is a network-based attack in which a device falsifies its MAC address to impersonate another device. This technique is commonly used to gain unauthorized access to restricted networks or to evade MAC-based access control lists (ACLs).

When a device connects to a network, it sends a DHCP request that includes its MAC address. The DHCP server responds with an IP address assignment and keeps a record of the MAC-to-IP mapping. By monitoring this activity, network administrators can identify discrepancies such as:

• Multiple devices requesting IP addresses using the same MAC address.

• A single port on a switch reporting rapidly changing MAC addresses.

• Conflicting IP assignments associated with differing MAC addresses.

DHCP snooping, a security feature found in many enterprise-grade switches, builds a trusted database of valid MAC-to-IP bindings. If a device attempts to spoof a MAC address not matching the trusted binding, the system can log, alert, or even block the traffic. Some implementations also integrate with IP Source Guard or Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) to further tighten security.

Let’s review the incorrect options:

• A. ICMP: Used primarily for diagnostics (e.g., ping, traceroute), not for tracking MAC address authenticity.

• B. RARP: An outdated protocol designed to map MAC addresses to IP addresses—rarely used in modern networks and offers no spoofing detection capabilities.

• D. IMAP: An email protocol with no relevance to MAC address handling or network security.

Therefore, DHCP, especially with modern enhancements like snooping and integration with other Layer 2 security tools, is the best protocol for detecting and preventing MAC spoofing attacks in a reliable and proactive manner.

Question 3:

A technician is troubleshooting reports from users who are experiencing high jitter and inconsistent connectivity over the wireless network. When testing, the technician observes fluctuating ping responses to the default gateway, suggesting instability possibly caused by interference. The suspected source includes other nearby wireless networks or non-Wi-Fi devices operating on similar frequencies (e.g., cordless phones, microwave ovens). 

Which tool would be most effective for detecting and analyzing the source of this interference?

A. NetFlow analyzer
B. Bandwidth analyzer
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Spectrum analyzer

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In cases where users are experiencing high jitter and inconsistent wireless performance, especially when latency to local devices like the default gateway varies significantly, the likely culprit is radio frequency (RF) interference. This type of issue commonly arises when there are multiple wireless devices or networks operating on overlapping channels, particularly in the 2.4 GHz band, or when non-802.11 devices (e.g., microwaves, Bluetooth headsets, cordless phones) emit signals that interfere with Wi-Fi frequencies.

The most suitable tool for diagnosing this type of problem is a spectrum analyzer. This device provides a visual representation of the RF spectrum, showing all signal activity across selected frequency bands—whether those signals come from Wi-Fi or non-Wi-Fi sources. With a spectrum analyzer, technicians can:

• Identify non-Wi-Fi sources of interference that are not visible to standard Wi-Fi scanning tools.

• Detect signal overlap from neighboring Wi-Fi networks and determine whether specific channels are congested.

• Visualize intermittent interference patterns, making it easier to pinpoint devices that only occasionally disrupt service.

• Correlate periods of high jitter or packet loss with spikes in RF noise or interference.

By isolating the root cause using this tool, the technician can take informed action, such as changing wireless channels, relocating access points, or shielding sensitive areas from interference sources.

Now let’s break down why the other options are less helpful in this scenario:

• A. NetFlow analyzer focuses on IP traffic flows—great for identifying traffic types and bandwidth usage trends, but not for diagnosing wireless layer issues like RF interference.

• B. Bandwidth analyzer helps identify who or what is consuming bandwidth, but again, it doesn’t operate at the RF layer to detect environmental interference.

• C. Protocol analyzer (such as Wireshark) inspects network packets, useful for protocol errors and packet analysis, but cannot detect physical layer problems like signal degradation or noise.

In conclusion, a spectrum analyzer is the most effective tool for identifying and addressing RF interference in wireless environments. It enables precise analysis of signal behavior at the physical layer, allowing for quicker resolution of jitter and latency issues caused by environmental factors.

Question 4:

Wireless users in your organization frequently lose internet access while remaining connected to the wireless network. The issue is often temporarily fixed when users manually disconnect and reconnect to the Wi-Fi, which reinitiates the captive portal login process. Despite the loss of internet, affected devices remain associated with the access points. 

What is the most likely first step to identify the root cause of this behavior?

A. Verify the session time-out configuration on the captive portal settings
B. Check for encryption protocol mismatch on client-side wireless settings
C. Confirm that a valid passphrase is used during web authentication
D. Investigate possible client disassociation caused by an evil twin AP

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The scenario described—users losing internet access while remaining connected to access points and regaining connectivity only after reconnecting—suggests a session management issue rather than a physical disconnection. Since users are not physically dropped from the wireless network and the problem resolves after re-triggering the captive portal, the likely culprit is an expired or terminated session in the portal’s configuration.

Captive portals are commonly used to enforce user authentication before granting network access. Once authenticated, users are given access for a specified duration, controlled by a session timeout setting. If the session timeout is too short, or if there is an aggressive idle timeout, users may lose access despite still being physically connected to the AP. This can create confusion because the client remains on the Wi-Fi but cannot reach the internet until they reauthenticate.

By checking and adjusting the session timeout settings on the captive portal, administrators can ensure that authenticated users retain access for a reasonable duration, minimizing unnecessary disconnections and improving user experience. This setting is often configurable based on duration (e.g., 1 hour, 24 hours) or idle activity (e.g., logout after 10 minutes of inactivity).

Now, let’s examine the other options:

• B. Encryption protocol mismatch typically prevents a device from connecting to the network at all. It would not cause intermittent internet loss after a successful connection and authentication.

• C. Invalid passphrase would result in authentication failure at the outset, not mid-session loss of access. If users can initially authenticate, the passphrase is not the issue.

• D. Evil twin AP (a rogue AP impersonating a legitimate one) could cause connectivity issues or credential theft, but it would more likely cause sudden disconnections or authentication warnings—not periodic drops followed by successful captive portal logins.

In summary, since the clients maintain Layer 2 connectivity (i.e., connected to APs) but lose Layer 3 access (internet), the most likely cause is that the captive portal is terminating sessions prematurely. Therefore, the most effective troubleshooting step is to review the session timeout settings and adjust them appropriately to match user expectations and device behavior.

Question 5:

While attempting to access a secure datacenter, a network administrator spots an unknown individual trying to closely follow them inside without using a badge or authentication. The administrator immediately stops the person and sends them to the security desk for validation. 

What type of physical intrusion did the administrator successfully block?

A. Evil twin
B. Tailgating
C. Piggybacking
D. Shoulder surfing

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The scenario described is a classic example of tailgating, a common form of physical security breach. Tailgating occurs when an unauthorized individual gains access to a secure facility by following closely behind someone with authorized access, often slipping in as the door closes before it locks again. The key aspect of tailgating is that it happens without the consent or awareness of the authorized individual. In this case, the administrator's vigilance prevented unauthorized access by intercepting the individual attempting to enter covertly.

Tailgating exploits human behavior, relying on the likelihood that individuals won’t question someone who appears to belong—particularly in high-traffic or busy work environments. Organizations typically combat this by implementing mantraps, badge readers, or security guards to enforce access protocols.

Let’s briefly examine the other options:

• A. Evil twin refers to a cybersecurity attack where an attacker sets up a fake Wi-Fi access point that mimics a legitimate one. This type of attack tricks users into connecting and is unrelated to physical access breaches.

• C. Piggybacking is sometimes used interchangeably with tailgating, but technically, piggybacking implies consent—the authorized person knowingly allows someone else to enter, often out of courtesy. In tailgating, the authorized person is usually unaware.

• D. Shoulder surfing involves visually spying on someone entering credentials or sensitive data, such as watching someone type a PIN at an ATM or login on a keyboard. This is a form of information theft, not unauthorized physical access.

In summary, tailgating poses a serious threat to secure facilities like datacenters where sensitive equipment and data are housed. Preventing such access is essential to maintaining physical and digital security. The administrator in this scenario correctly identified and thwarted a tailgating attempt by stopping the intruder and redirecting them to proper verification procedures. This action upholds the principles of zero trust and physical access control, demonstrating effective security awareness.

Question 6:

A network administrator is diagnosing performance issues reported by users. They notice a significant number of CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check) errors occurring during normal data transfers, suggesting that data is being corrupted. 

Which OSI model layer should the administrator primarily focus on to begin troubleshooting these CRC errors?

A. Layer 1 – Physical
B. Layer 2 – Data Link
C. Layer 3 – Network
D. Layer 4 – Transport
E. Layer 5 – Session
F. Layer 6 – Presentation
G. Layer 7 – Application

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

CRC errors are typically associated with Layer 2 of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model, known as the Data Link Layer. CRC, or Cyclic Redundancy Check, is an error-detection method used at this layer to ensure data integrity during transmission. Whenever a frame is sent across the network, the sender computes a CRC value and appends it to the frame. The receiver recalculates the CRC upon arrival; if the computed value doesn’t match the transmitted one, a CRC error is logged, indicating potential data corruption.

Although physical issues at Layer 1—such as damaged cables, electromagnetic interference, or faulty ports—often cause this corruption, Layer 2 is where the problem is detected and reported. Devices like switches and NICs handle CRC checking as part of Ethernet protocol operations. Therefore, Layer 2 is the logical starting point for investigating CRC errors.

Typical causes include:

• Frayed or improperly shielded cables

• Defective switch or router ports

• Bad NICs

• Improper terminations or incorrect cabling standards

• Electromagnetic interference from nearby devices

To identify the root cause, the administrator should examine interface statistics on switches, monitor port error counts, and possibly use loopback tests. Swapping cables and ports can help isolate faulty components.

Let’s look at why other layers are incorrect:

• Layer 1 (Physical): While this layer handles the medium through which signals pass, it doesn’t detect or report CRC errors. However, many root causes may reside here.

• Layers 3–7: These upper layers deal with logical addressing (Layer 3), reliable transport (Layer 4), sessions (Layer 5), data formatting (Layer 6), and end-user interactions (Layer 7). They don’t handle low-level frame integrity checking.

In summary, even though physical-layer faults often cause CRC errors, the errors themselves are detected and reported at the Data Link Layer. That makes Layer 2 the right starting point for effective troubleshooting. By analyzing switch logs, checking cabling, and testing NICs, administrators can quickly identify and resolve the underlying issue to restore optimal network performance.

Question 7:

A company recently provisioned 100 additional virtual desktop machines for new employees. Shortly after deployment, several users reported that their virtual desktops were sluggish, frequently lagged, or occasionally became unresponsive. Network assessments reveal minimal congestion, no packet loss, and normal latency levels. 

To accurately diagnose the root cause of these VM performance issues, which two host-level performance metrics should the system administrator prioritize for monitoring? (Select TWO):

A. CPU usage
B. Memory
C. Temperature
D. Bandwidth
E. Latency
F. Jitter

Correct Answers: A and B

Explanation:

In environments where a large number of virtual desktops (VMs) are running on shared infrastructure, such as a hypervisor or virtual host, the two most significant performance constraints are CPU usage and memory consumption. When these physical resources are overcommitted, virtual machines begin to experience severe lag, slow processing times, or become intermittently unresponsive—just as described in this scenario.

High CPU utilization on the host indicates that too many processes or virtual machines are demanding processor time. Hypervisors allocate CPU time in slices across the VMs. If there aren’t enough CPU cores or if the load exceeds available processing power, then each VM has to wait longer for its turn, which results in noticeable lag for end users. This is a common issue in virtual environments that suddenly scale up, like in this case with 100 new desktops.

Memory:
RAM is another finite resource in virtualized systems. If the host doesn’t have sufficient physical memory to allocate to all running VMs, the hypervisor might implement techniques like memory ballooning or swapping to disk. These methods drastically reduce performance, as virtual machines are forced to access slower storage instead of high-speed RAM. As applications compete for limited memory, users experience longer loading times and decreased responsiveness.

Why the other options are incorrect:

• C. Temperature: While overheating can lead to hardware shutdowns or throttling, it's rarely the sole reason for software-level slowness across multiple VMs unless accompanied by thermal alerts.

• D. Bandwidth, E. Latency, F. Jitter: These are network-related metrics, and the scenario explicitly states that the network is functioning well—meaning these are not contributing to the performance issue.

Since the network infrastructure has been ruled out and the issue persists across multiple virtual desktops, focusing on CPU and memory usage on the host servers will provide the clearest insight into performance bottlenecks. Monitoring and possibly upgrading these resources will be key to resolving the lag and improving virtual desktop experience.

Question 8:

A network administrator notices that client devices are failing to obtain IP addresses from the DHCP server. Further investigation reveals that the DHCP scope is fully utilized. The administrator wants to resolve this issue without adding a new scope or expanding the existing one. 

What is the most effective action to take under these circumstances?

A. Install load balancers
B. Install more switches
C. Decrease the number of VLANs
D. Reduce the DHCP lease time

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

When a DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) scope is exhausted, it means all the IP addresses available within that pool have been assigned to clients. No additional devices can be granted IP addresses, which results in connectivity issues across the network. Rather than expanding the scope or introducing a new one—which may involve significant configuration changes—the most efficient solution is to reduce the lease time.

Why lease time matters:
Lease time determines how long a client holds onto an IP address before it is required to renew or release it. By shortening the lease duration, IP addresses cycle back into the pool more quickly. This is especially useful in dynamic environments such as offices, schools, or public spaces where devices connect intermittently. For instance, reducing a lease from 24 hours to 2 hours can dramatically increase the availability of addresses over the same period.

Benefits of reducing lease time include:

• Faster recycling of unused IPs

• Better accommodation of fluctuating device counts

• No need for adding complexity or new infrastructure

Why the other choices are ineffective:

• A. Install load balancers: These optimize traffic distribution to servers but have no interaction with DHCP services or IP address management.

• B. Install more switches: While more switches increase physical connectivity, they do not expand DHCP address availability.

• C. Decrease the number of VLANs: VLAN changes alter network segmentation and isolation, but they don't affect the number of IP addresses available in a specific DHCP scope. In some cases, merging VLANs could create security or broadcast domain issues without solving the core problem.

The administrator’s best option is to reduce the DHCP lease time, allowing quicker recycling of IP addresses. This method avoids major changes and helps restore connectivity by optimizing the use of the existing DHCP pool.

Question 9:

A network technician is configuring a switch and wants to ensure that traffic on the sales department’s VLAN is separated from other departments. 

Which of the following should be implemented to achieve this?

A. Trunking
B. Subnetting
C. VLANs
D. Routing

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The correct answer is C: VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks). VLANs are a crucial part of modern networking and are used to logically separate network segments at the switch level, even if all devices are connected to the same physical switch.

In this scenario, the technician wants the sales department's network traffic to be isolated from other departments. By creating a VLAN specifically for the sales department, only devices assigned to that VLAN will be able to communicate with each other directly. This segmentation enhances security, improves performance, and simplifies network management.

Here’s why the other options are not suitable:

• A. Trunking: While trunking is important in VLAN configurations, it’s a technique used to allow VLAN traffic to travel between switches using a single physical connection. Trunking supports multiple VLANs over a single port, but it does not create separation by itself.

• B. Subnetting: Subnetting divides IP address ranges to create logical segments at Layer 3. While it can assist in separating traffic, it operates at the network layer, not the data link layer. VLANs provide Layer 2 segmentation, which is more appropriate when using switches.

• D. Routing: Routing moves packets between networks. While routers or Layer 3 switches can route traffic between VLANs (called inter-VLAN routing), simply routing alone doesn’t create the separation; VLANs must first be defined to isolate the traffic.

In summary, VLANs are the correct solution when a technician needs to separate network traffic by department or function within a switched environment. Proper implementation of VLANs ensures traffic is isolated unless routing between VLANs is explicitly configured. Understanding VLANs is fundamental to achieving the goals of segmentation, performance tuning, and secure traffic flow in enterprise networks—all key concepts covered in the N10-008 exam.

Question 10:

Which of the following protocols is used to securely access a remote network device via a command-line interface?

A. FTP
B. Telnet
C. SSH
D. SNMP

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The correct answer is C: SSH (Secure Shell). SSH is a cryptographic network protocol used to establish a secure, encrypted connection to a remote device, often a router, switch, server, or firewall, through the command-line interface (CLI).

SSH operates over TCP port 22 and is the modern, secure alternative to Telnet, which sends data in plaintext and exposes credentials to potential interception. SSH encrypts both authentication credentials and session data, making it a best practice for remote administration.

Let’s evaluate the other options:

• A. FTP (File Transfer Protocol): This is used to transfer files between systems. It operates over TCP ports 20 and 21 and does not provide secure remote access or a CLI environment. Furthermore, FTP lacks encryption by default, making it unsuitable for secure communication.

• B. Telnet: Telnet does offer command-line remote access to network devices, but it is insecure because it transmits data, including usernames and passwords, in plain text. Because of its vulnerabilities, Telnet has largely been replaced by SSH in secure environments.

• D. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol): SNMP is used for monitoring and managing network devices, such as collecting performance data or configuration statistics. It is not used for CLI access or interactive command sessions.

The use of SSH is crucial in modern network environments, where security is a priority. Most devices such as managed switches, routers, and Linux servers support SSH for administrative tasks. As a network administrator, being proficient with SSH commands and understanding its security benefits is essential for secure device management, making this a highly testable concept on the CompTIA Network+ exam.

Expect questions on ports, secure protocols, and their specific use cases throughout the N10-008 exam. SSH is one of the most important secure access protocols you’ll need to know.