Fortinet  NSE7_PBC-7.2 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Which mechanism does AWS Transit Gateway Connect utilize to transport data between a virtual private cloud (VPC) and the transit gateway?

A. GRE attachment
B. BGP attachment
C. Transit Gateway Connect attachment
D. Transport attachment

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

AWS Transit Gateway Connect is an enhancement of the Transit Gateway service that enables connectivity between third-party SD-WAN appliances and AWS resources. This feature is particularly useful for enterprises that want to integrate their on-premises SD-WAN infrastructure with cloud workloads in AWS. To accomplish this, Transit Gateway Connect establishes a specialized data path between external network appliances and AWS VPCs. This is where Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) becomes essential.

Option A is the correct answer because GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation) is the tunneling protocol that Transit Gateway Connect relies on to encapsulate packets and route traffic. GRE allows encapsulation of various types of network layer protocols inside point-to-point tunnels. This is crucial in enabling seamless integration with external network devices, such as SD-WAN routers from vendors like Cisco, Fortinet, or VMware, which support GRE-based transport.

Transit Gateway Connect requires a transport VPC attachment, but the actual packet forwarding happens over the GRE tunnel. Once the GRE tunnel is established, BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is typically used within the GRE session to dynamically exchange routes between the SD-WAN device and the Transit Gateway. However, BGP is the routing protocol—it does not handle the packet transport itself. That distinction is vital.

Option B, BGP attachment, is misleading. While BGP is involved in route advertisement and dynamic routing within the Connect setup, it is not the mechanism by which the actual traffic is transported. GRE handles that role.

Option C, Transit Gateway Connect attachment, refers to the resource configuration used in AWS but not the underlying transport protocol. This is more of a logical construct rather than a transport mechanism.

Option D, transport attachment, is a generic term and not specific to the encapsulation method. The term “transport attachment” in AWS usually refers to the Transit Gateway VPC attachment that underlies the GRE tunnel but does not define how data is encapsulated and transmitted.

In summary, Transit Gateway Connect leverages GRE as the underlying transport mechanism, allowing secure and efficient data flow between AWS VPCs and SD-WAN appliances. Thus, the correct answer is A. GRE attachment.

Question 2:

When designing an SD-WAN Transit Gateway (TGW) Connect topology where traffic from spoke VPCs must pass through a security VPC, which three initial routing steps are essential to ensure traffic inspection by a FortiGate firewall? (Select three.)

A. In the TGW subnet route table of the security VPC, direct 0.0.0.0/0 to the FortiGate internal interface
B. In the FortiGate internal subnet route table, route 0.0.0.0/0 to the Transit Gateway
C. In the internal subnet route table of the spoke VPC, set 0.0.0.0/0 to point to the Transit Gateway
D. In the TGW subnet of the security VPC, route 0.0.0.0/0 to the TGW
E. Configure all VPCs to route 0.0.0.0/0 traffic directly to the Internet Gateway

Correct Answers: A, B, and C

Explanation:

In a Transit Gateway Connect deployment for SD-WAN, it’s common to route all traffic from spoke VPCs through a centralized security VPC that hosts inspection devices like FortiGate. For this design to function properly, specific routing steps must be in place to direct traffic through the FortiGate and ensure return paths are intact.

Option A is correct. The TGW subnet routing table in the security VPC must route 0.0.0.0/0 (or desired CIDRs) to the FortiGate’s internal interface. This ensures that any traffic entering the security VPC via the Transit Gateway gets forwarded to the FortiGate for security inspection. Without this, traffic would not be processed by the firewall.

Option B is also correct. After the FortiGate processes the traffic, it must know how to send the response back toward the appropriate destination, typically another VPC. To accomplish this, the FortiGate’s internal subnet routing table should have 0.0.0.0/0 (or matching CIDRs) pointing back to the Transit Gateway. This creates a full bidirectional path.

Option C is necessary to initiate the routing of traffic from the spoke VPC. The internal subnet route table in the spoke VPC should point 0.0.0.0/0 (default route) to the Transit Gateway. This ensures that all outbound traffic flows toward the TGW, where it can be routed to the security VPC for inspection.

Let’s explore the incorrect options:

Option D suggests routing 0.0.0.0/0 from the TGW subnet back to the TGW itself. This causes a routing loop, where traffic sent to the TGW is routed back to the TGW endlessly without reaching the firewall. This is a misconfiguration and defeats the purpose of traffic inspection.

Option E would direct all traffic to the Internet Gateway, bypassing the FortiGate entirely. This contradicts the design principle of centralized inspection and would allow unfiltered internet-bound traffic, a major security flaw.

In conclusion, routing traffic through the security VPC for inspection requires deliberate routing configurations in three places: the spoke VPC, the TGW subnet in the security VPC, and the FortiGate subnet. The correct setup ensures full path inspection and return routing, making A, B, and C the right answers.

Question 3:

Which two AWS services are commonly involved in automating the process of integrating new spoke VPCs into a transit VPC or Transit Gateway setup? (Select two.)

A. Amazon CloudWatch
B. Amazon S3 bucket
C. AWS Transit Gateway
D. AWS Security Hub

Correct Answers: A, C

Explanation:

Automating the onboarding of new spoke VPCs into a centralized networking model—such as a transit VPC or AWS Transit Gateway (TGW)—involves a combination of orchestration, monitoring, and networking services within AWS. Among the provided options, Amazon CloudWatch and AWS Transit Gateway play pivotal roles in this process.

• A. Amazon CloudWatch
  CloudWatch is a core monitoring service in AWS that enables visibility into performance metrics, logs, and system events. In the context of automating spoke VPC integration, CloudWatch can trigger automated workflows using CloudWatch Events (now Amazon EventBridge). For instance, the creation of a new VPC or the attachment of resources can trigger AWS Lambda functions or AWS Systems Manager Automation documents to perform actions such as updating route tables, configuring Transit Gateway attachments, or sending notifications. Its ability to act on real-time system events makes it a critical tool for automation.

• C. AWS Transit Gateway
  Transit Gateway is AWS’s scalable networking solution that simplifies the interconnection of multiple VPCs and on-premises networks. It acts as a central router that allows thousands of VPCs to communicate without needing individual peering connections. In automation workflows, Transit Gateway serves as the endpoint to which new VPCs are attached. Scripts or functions can programmatically create TGW attachments, associate them with the right route tables, and propagate routes. It is the foundation of modern automated network topologies in AWS.

Now, evaluating the incorrect options:

• B. Amazon S3 Bucket
  Although Amazon S3 can be used to store configuration files, templates, or logs used in automation pipelines, it does not directly participate in the connectivity or network automation process. It is a passive storage component, not a functional tool in the routing or VPC attachment lifecycle.

• D. AWS Security Hub
  Security Hub aggregates and prioritizes security alerts across AWS accounts and services. While useful for monitoring compliance and detecting threats, it is not designed for network automation or orchestrating the addition of VPCs into a transit architecture.

The combination of CloudWatch (for event-driven automation) and Transit Gateway (for central network connectivity) provides the core capabilities needed to automate the integration of new spoke VPCs into a transit architecture.

Question 4:

What is the most effective method an administrator can use to protect container environments from newly emerging security threats?

A. Apply distributed network-layer application control signatures
B. Use Docker-specific application control signatures
C. Use Amazon S3 application control signatures
D. Implement AWS service-wide application control signatures

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

As organizations increasingly deploy applications in containerized environments, ensuring the security of these containers becomes crucial. Containers, especially those orchestrated through platforms like Docker, present unique security challenges due to their lightweight nature, shared host kernels, and rapid deployment cycles. To effectively defend against emerging container-specific threats, administrators should employ Docker-related application control signatures.

• B. Docker-specific application control signatures
  This is the most accurate and targeted approach for container security. These signatures are designed to identify patterns, behaviors, and vulnerabilities specifically within Docker containers. They can detect issues like malicious container images, privilege escalations, vulnerable runtime configurations, or unexpected behavior during container execution. Using these Docker-specific signatures, security solutions can enforce policies that block unauthorized access, restrict container capabilities, and alert administrators to threats tailored to container ecosystems.

Let’s look at why the other options fall short:

• A. Distributed network-related application control signatures
  While network security remains important, generic distributed network signatures focus on network traffic patterns, not on container-specific behaviors. They are less effective at detecting internal container threats such as malicious processes, privileged container access, or misconfigured Dockerfiles.

• C. Amazon AWS_S3-related application control signatures
  These signatures are relevant to securing Amazon S3, AWS’s object storage service. They are used to detect unauthorized access, misconfigured buckets, or sensitive data exposure in storage—not for protecting container environments.

• D. General Amazon AWS-related application control signatures
  This option targets the broader AWS service ecosystem, including EC2, IAM, and networking configurations. While useful for securing overall cloud infrastructure, it lacks the granular focus on container-specific threats and cannot address risks that arise from container runtimes or image vulnerabilities.

Containers, particularly those run through Docker, require tailored security policies and detection mechanisms. By using Docker-related application control signatures, administrators can detect, prevent, and respond to security threats that are unique to containerized environments. These signatures ensure a layered defense around the container's lifecycle—from image creation to runtime behavior—making them the most effective solution for container security.

Question 5:

You are deploying a new spoke VPC into an existing AWS transit VPC setup using a CloudFormation template. 

Which two elements are essential for ensuring correct integration of this spoke into the network? (Choose two.)

A. The Amazon CloudWatch tag value
B. The identifier tag associated with the spoke VPC
C. The BGP ASN configured for the transit VPC
D. The OSPF autonomous system (AS) number used in the hub

Correct Answers: B, C

Explanation:

When integrating a new spoke VPC into a transit VPC architecture using AWS CloudFormation, precise values must be supplied to guide the deployment. A transit VPC architecture typically includes a hub-and-spoke model, often incorporating virtual appliances (like Cisco CSR1000v or Fortinet) and uses routing protocols such as BGP to facilitate dynamic routing between connected networks.

Let’s analyze the options:

Option B – The tag value of the spoke:
This is a mandatory input for CloudFormation when deploying a new spoke. AWS relies heavily on resource tagging to identify and automate the association of VPCs and related services. These tags serve as metadata used by Lambda functions or automation scripts to link the spoke VPC to the correct transit infrastructure. Without the correct tag, the deployment process may not properly associate route tables, VPN connections, or security group rules with the spoke, leading to failed or misconfigured integrations.

Option C – The BGP ASN of the transit VPC:
The Autonomous System Number (ASN) used by BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) in the transit VPC is another crucial input. BGP is widely used in transit VPC designs to manage dynamic route propagation between the hub and its spokes. During CloudFormation deployment, specifying the correct ASN ensures that the spoke can successfully establish BGP peering with the hub, exchange routing information, and participate in the network dynamically. This becomes especially important when using SD-WAN or VPN appliances that rely on BGP for failover, scalability, and route learning.

Now, let’s look at the incorrect options:

Option A – The Amazon CloudWatch tag value:
While CloudWatch is used for monitoring and logging, its tag values are not essential for the core deployment of a new spoke VPC using CloudFormation. Tags related to CloudWatch may be included for advanced observability, but they are not required for the successful creation and routing of the spoke within a transit VPC environment.

Option D – The OSPF AS value of the hub:
OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is a dynamic routing protocol typically used in on-premises networks, not natively supported in AWS Transit Gateway or Transit VPC deployments. AWS focuses on static routing and BGP for route propagation. Virtual appliances used in the transit VPC (such as Cisco or Palo Alto firewalls) may support OSPF internally, but within AWS, OSPF is generally not used to establish connectivity between VPCs. Hence, it’s not a relevant input for this deployment.

In summary, the two required components for integrating a new spoke into a transit VPC using CloudFormation are:
(B) the spoke's tag value, which ensures correct identification and linkage, and
(C) the BGP ASN of the transit VPC, which enables proper routing and dynamic peering.

Question 6:

What is the primary benefit of using AWS Transit Gateway Connect in an SD-WAN architecture compared to traditional SD-WAN deployments?

A. It allows GRE-based tunnel attachments
B. It enables the use of BGP over IPsec for maximum bandwidth
C. It supports combining IPsec with GRE to boost throughput
D. It eliminates Equal-Cost Multi-Path (ECMP) routing

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Transit Gateway Connect is an AWS feature designed to simplify and optimize the integration of third-party SD-WAN solutions with AWS Transit Gateway (TGW). It offers a modern, efficient alternative to traditional SD-WAN designs, which primarily relied on IPsec tunnels and static configurations.

Let’s understand why Option A is the correct answer by exploring how Transit Gateway Connect enhances SD-WAN deployments:

A – GRE-based tunnel attachments:
The key enhancement provided by Transit Gateway Connect is its support for Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) tunnels. GRE is a lightweight protocol that encapsulates packets, allowing for more efficient traffic forwarding than IPsec. In contrast to IPsec—which includes encryption and overhead processing—GRE enables high-throughput, low-latency tunnels, ideal for SD-WAN use cases where performance is critical, and encryption is handled elsewhere (e.g., at the application layer or via dedicated security appliances). Transit Gateway Connect allows GRE tunnels to attach directly to the TGW, enabling seamless routing integration with support for dynamic BGP. This setup improves performance and simplifies network design.

B – BGP over IPsec for maximum throughput:
While using BGP over IPsec is possible and has been a standard method in AWS networking, it is not a new benefit or unique to Transit Gateway Connect. In fact, Transit Gateway Connect offers GRE with BGP, which removes the encryption overhead and thereby provides better performance and easier scalability than IPsec. Thus, while this statement is technically accurate in other contexts, it does not reflect the primary advantage offered by Transit Gateway Connect.

C – Combining IPsec with GRE for higher bandwidth:
This approach is not standard nor recommended. Using both IPsec and GRE together introduces complexity and may lead to unnecessary overhead rather than enhancing performance. Transit Gateway Connect aims to reduce such complexity by offering GRE as a standalone, simpler alternative to encrypted IPsec tunnels, particularly for SD-WAN scenarios.

D – Eliminates ECMP:
This is incorrect. Equal-Cost Multi-Path (ECMP) is a routing method used to distribute traffic across multiple paths with the same metric. ECMP is still supported with Transit Gateway Connect and often used to scale bandwidth across parallel tunnels. Transit Gateway Connect does not eliminate ECMP, but rather continues to support it where applicable.

In conclusion, the standout benefit of Transit Gateway Connect lies in its ability to use GRE tunnels, which provide lightweight, scalable, and efficient connectivity between SD-WAN appliances and AWS Transit Gateway, thereby improving performance and simplifying deployment. Hence, the correct answer is A.

Question 7:

You’ve been asked to deploy an Azure Virtual WAN (vWAN) solution that links your company’s headquarters and branch offices to other VNETs within Azure. 

Which two connection types offer the most reliable and supported integration between your sites and the Azure vWAN hub? (Choose two.)

A. VPN Gateway
B. SSL VPN connections
C. ExpressRoute
D. GRE tunnels
E. L2TP connection

Correct Answers: A and C

Explanation:

Microsoft’s Azure Virtual WAN (vWAN) is a cloud-based networking service that simplifies large-scale branch connectivity, hybrid networks, and inter-VNET routing. It acts as a centralized hub that enables secure, optimized, and automated connectivity between on-premises networks and Azure resources. When connecting a company’s headquarters and branch sites to Azure via vWAN, the two most robust and officially supported options are VPN Gateway and ExpressRoute.

Let’s break down why these two are the best solutions:

• Option A: VPN Gateway
  VPN Gateway provides a secure IPSec-based site-to-site VPN connection over the public internet. It is natively supported by Azure vWAN, enabling encrypted tunnels between the company’s locations and the Azure hub. VPN Gateway is cost-effective, widely supported by networking hardware, and ideal for small to medium-sized branch offices where private connectivity isn’t feasible. VPN connections also serve as reliable failover paths when used alongside ExpressRoute

• Option C: ExpressRoute
  ExpressRoute offers a private, dedicated connection between your on-premises infrastructure and Azure, bypassing the public internet. This results in lower latency, greater reliability, and higher throughput, making it suitable for enterprise-level workloads and data-sensitive applications. ExpressRoute integrates directly with Azure vWAN to provide seamless connectivity to the hub and connected VNETs.

Now, consider the incorrect options:

• Option B: SSL VPN connections
  SSL VPNs are primarily intended for individual user access, such as remote workers accessing internal systems via client software. They are not designed for site-to-site infrastructure connections, and Azure vWAN does not natively support SSL VPN as a connection method.

• Option D: GRE tunnels
  GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation) is not supported natively by Azure vWAN. While GRE is used in certain advanced routing scenarios, it does not provide encryption and is not commonly used or recommended for Azure site connectivity.

• Option E: L2TP connection
  L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol), typically used with IPSec, is another form of VPN connection, but it is mostly used for client-based remote access rather than site-to-site connectivity. Azure vWAN does not use L2TP as a standard connection method.

In conclusion, the most efficient and Azure-supported solutions to establish connectivity between your company’s main site, branches, and the vWAN hub are A (VPN Gateway) and C (ExpressRoute).

Question 8:

An IT administrator needs a security solution that provides insight into user behavior and data usage within popular SaaS applications in a multicloud environment. 

Which Fortinet product should be deployed to ensure visibility and secure access across these platforms?

A. FortiSandbox
B. FortiCASB
C. FortiWeb
D. FortiSIEM

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

As organizations adopt multiple Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) platforms such as Microsoft 365, Google Workspace, Salesforce, and Dropbox, they face growing challenges in managing user activity, data security, and compliance across these services. In such scenarios, deploying a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) is the ideal strategy to enforce security policies and maintain visibility. Fortinet offers this capability through FortiCASB.

FortiCASB is specifically designed to provide deep visibility into user activity, detect risky behaviors, enforce security and compliance policies, and prevent data loss within SaaS environments. It plays a critical role in protecting cloud-native applications by ensuring that only authorized users can access sensitive data and that data is not improperly shared, downloaded, or misused. FortiCASB also supports integrations across multiple cloud platforms, making it highly effective in multicloud deployments.

Key capabilities of FortiCASB include:

• Monitoring and auditing of user actions within SaaS apps.

• Identifying shadow IT and unauthorized SaaS usage.

• Enforcing policies for data access, sharing, and retention.

• Supporting regulatory compliance (e.g., GDPR, HIPAA).

Let’s examine why the other options are not appropriate:

• Option A: FortiSandbox
  FortiSandbox is an advanced threat detection tool that uses sandboxing to analyze suspicious files and identify malware. While it adds value to endpoint and network protection, it doesn’t offer visibility or control over SaaS user activity or data.

• Option C: FortiWeb
  FortiWeb is a Web Application Firewall (WAF) that protects web applications from vulnerabilities like SQL injection and XSS attacks. It is not designed to interact with or monitor user behavior within third-party SaaS platforms.

• Option D: FortiSIEM
  FortiSIEM consolidates log data and alerts from across an organization’s network to identify anomalies and provide centralized threat visibility. However, it is a general-purpose security event manager, not purpose-built for SaaS visibility or data control.

In conclusion, FortiCASB (B) is the correct solution for administrators who need to monitor and secure SaaS usage across multiple cloud platforms. It provides the targeted visibility and controls needed to protect user data and manage access in today’s increasingly distributed cloud environments.

Question 9:

A cloud architect is deploying FortiGate in an AWS environment using a centralized egress model. The goal is to inspect and secure outbound traffic from multiple VPCs. 

Which AWS component must be configured to enable traffic redirection through the FortiGate firewall?

A. Transit Gateway with VPC attachments
B. Elastic Load Balancer in front of FortiGate
C. NAT Gateway in each spoke VPC
D. Security Groups with outbound allow rules only

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

When using FortiGate in a centralized egress model within AWS, traffic from multiple Virtual Private Clouds (VPCs) is routed through a central inspection point—typically the FortiGate firewall. This architecture is common in hub-and-spoke designs, where the FortiGate instance is deployed in a central (hub) VPC, and spoke VPCs are connected to it via AWS Transit Gateway (TGW).

The Transit Gateway acts as a scalable routing hub that enables inter-VPC communication and traffic forwarding to third-party appliances like FortiGate. By attaching the spoke VPCs and inspection VPC (with FortiGate) to the TGW, traffic from spoke VPCs can be routed to the firewall for inspection before reaching the internet or other destinations.

• A (Correct): TGW with VPC attachments enables dynamic and scalable interconnectivity. You can define route tables in TGW that direct outbound traffic from spoke VPCs to the FortiGate instance.

• B (Incorrect): Elastic Load Balancers are used for load distribution but cannot redirect VPC-wide outbound traffic for inspection.

• C (Incorrect): NAT Gateways allow internet access but do not facilitate centralized inspection across VPCs.

• D (Incorrect): Security Groups manage traffic permissions but cannot route or inspect traffic between VPCs.

Using TGW for traffic redirection to FortiGate aligns with Fortinet’s reference architectures and ensures centralized logging, inspection, and policy enforcement for outbound traffic, making Option A the best choice.

Question 10:

In a hybrid cloud setup, a FortiGate device is deployed in Microsoft Azure to protect both north-south and east-west traffic. 

Which feature enables the FortiGate to inspect traffic between Azure subnets efficiently?

A. Azure Application Gateway
B. User-Defined Routes (UDR)
C. Azure Private Endpoint
D. FortiAnalyzer integration

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

In Microsoft Azure, when deploying FortiGate to inspect east-west traffic (traffic between subnets) and north-south traffic (traffic entering and exiting the cloud), it’s essential to control how packets are routed. Azure’s default routing does not send subnet-to-subnet traffic through Network Virtual Appliances (NVAs) like FortiGate. Therefore, you must manually define custom routes using User-Defined Routes (UDRs).

A User-Defined Route (UDR) is a custom routing configuration that enables you to override Azure’s system routing. By applying a UDR to a subnet, you can direct traffic to a next-hop address (such as the FortiGate's internal NIC IP). This allows FortiGate to sit inline and inspect traffic moving between subnets or toward the internet.

• B (Correct): UDRs are the mechanism in Azure that allows routing traffic through FortiGate for inspection. They are vital in enabling east-west and north-south visibility in a segmented Azure environment.

• A (Incorrect): Azure Application Gateway is a layer 7 load balancer and cannot be used for packet-level inspection across subnets.

• C (Incorrect): Private Endpoints secure access to services like Azure Storage or SQL; they are unrelated to routing subnet traffic.

• D (Incorrect): FortiAnalyzer is used for logging and analytics, not traffic routing.

By combining UDRs with FortiGate, security teams can implement fine-grained controls and threat prevention across subnet boundaries—something crucial in hybrid and multi-cloud security. This makes Option B the correct and most practical solution for traffic inspection in Azure.