Netskope NSK200 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Which three types of events can be accessed through Netskope's REST API version 2?

A application
B alert
C client
D infrastructure
E user

Answer: A, B, E

Explanation:

Netskope’s REST API v2 provides specific event types that enable organizations to monitor and respond to security activities across their cloud environments. Understanding these event types is crucial for effective cloud security management.

The first accessible event type is application events. These relate to activities involving cloud applications used within the organization. Monitoring application events allows security teams to see which applications users are interacting with, how data flows through those apps, and whether any risky or unauthorized behavior occurs. This insight is essential for enforcing cloud usage policies and identifying potential threats emerging from application usage.

The second type is alert events. Alerts are generated by Netskope’s security system when predefined rules or thresholds are triggered, such as detecting malware, policy violations, or anomalous behavior. Accessing alert events through the API allows for automated threat detection and faster incident response by integrating alerts into broader security workflows and SIEM tools.

The third accessible event type is user events. These track actions performed by individual users within the cloud environment. Monitoring user events is critical for detecting insider threats, suspicious account behavior, or policy breaches at the user level. It also supports audit trails and compliance requirements.

On the other hand, client and infrastructure events, while important in other contexts, are not accessible through the REST API v2. Client events might relate to device-specific activities and infrastructure events to system-level network or server events, which fall outside the scope of this API’s event access.

In summary, the three event types available via Netskope’s REST API v2 are application, alert, and user. These provide comprehensive visibility into cloud app usage, triggered security alerts, and user actions, enabling robust cloud security monitoring and management.

Question 2:

What measure should be implemented to prevent users from signing into their personal Google accounts while using the organization's corporate collaboration tools?

A Google Gmail app
B User Constraint
C DLP profile
D Device classification

Answer: B

Explanation:

In a corporate environment, it is often necessary to prevent employees from logging into personal Google accounts on devices or applications meant for business collaboration. This helps maintain data security, regulatory compliance, and ensures that work-related activities remain within approved corporate accounts.

Among the options, User Constraint is the most effective and targeted solution to achieve this. User constraints enable administrators to enforce specific access policies at the user level. By applying constraints, the organization can restrict logins to only approved corporate Google accounts. This prevents users from using personal Google credentials to access the collaboration suite, thus reducing the risk of data leakage, unauthorized sharing, and mixing personal with corporate data.

The Google Gmail app option is not suitable because installing or managing the Gmail app itself does not control login behavior across the entire Google suite. It is merely an email client, and using or restricting this app would not prevent access to other Google services or personal account logins.

A DLP profile (Data Loss Prevention) is designed to monitor, detect, and prevent sensitive data leaks. Although critical for data security, DLP profiles do not manage or restrict user login sessions or control which accounts can sign in. Therefore, it cannot stop personal Google account usage within the corporate environment.

Device classification involves categorizing devices based on compliance or security posture. While useful for access control, it controls device eligibility rather than account types. Device classification cannot specifically prevent users from signing in with personal Google accounts if the device is allowed.

In conclusion, User Constraint policies directly restrict the types of accounts that can access the corporate collaboration suite, ensuring that only corporate Google accounts are used. This is the best way to prevent personal Google account logins and maintain corporate security standards.

Question 3:

Which two settings in the Netskope client are preventing access to the web server over SSL when it is enabled? (Select two.)

A. SSL pinned certificates are blocked.
B. Untrusted root certificates are blocked.
C. Incomplete certificate trust chains are blocked.
D. Self-signed server certificates are blocked.

Correct answer: B, D

Explanation:

When a client connects to a web server using SSL/TLS, the trustworthiness of the SSL certificate is critical. The client verifies that the server’s certificate is issued by a trusted Certificate Authority (CA), and that the certificate chain is complete and valid. In this situation, the Netskope client is enabled and configured to inspect SSL traffic, but access to the web server over SSL is failing due to certificate validation issues.

The first key factor here is blocking untrusted root certificates (B). A root certificate is the anchor of trust in SSL certificate chains. If the root certificate is not recognized or trusted by the client or security software (like Netskope), SSL connections will be rejected to protect against potential man-in-the-middle attacks. This often happens when the certificate is self-signed or issued by an unknown CA. Since the Netskope client blocks such untrusted root certificates, it prevents the connection from being established.

The second issue is blocking self-signed server certificates (D). Self-signed certificates are those signed by the server itself, rather than by a trusted CA. While sometimes used in testing or internal environments, self-signed certificates lack third-party validation, making them inherently untrusted. Netskope’s default security policies typically block these certificates to ensure SSL traffic only uses certificates with proper CA validation, preventing insecure connections.

The other options do not explain the problem as directly. SSL pinned certificates (A) involve verifying a certificate against a known good certificate but are not relevant here since pinning is not mentioned as part of the scenario. Incomplete certificate trust chains (C) occur when intermediate certificates are missing, but this is not the main cause here—the key is that the root or server certificate is untrusted or self-signed, which Netskope blocks.

In summary, the inability to access the SSL web server is caused by Netskope blocking both untrusted root certificates and self-signed server certificates. These settings are essential security controls but must be managed carefully in environments using non-standard or internal SSL certificates.

Question 4:

An engineering company uses Netskope DLP to detect and block sensitive files like schematics. However, employees have started uploading screenshots of these blocked documents. 

What Netskope feature should be used to prevent any screenshots from being uploaded?

A. Exact data match (EDM)
B. Document fingerprinting
C. Machine learning (ML) image classifier
D. Optical character recognition (OCR)

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

This engineering firm is facing a challenge where employees bypass data loss prevention (DLP) controls by taking screenshots of sensitive documents and uploading them, circumventing traditional file-based detection. Screenshots are images, which require specialized detection techniques beyond text or file content matching.

The best solution here is the machine learning (ML) image classifier (C). This feature uses advanced algorithms to analyze the content of images—such as screenshots—to identify sensitive data, including text, diagrams, logos, or schematics embedded within the image. ML classifiers are trained to recognize patterns and visual elements in images that correspond to sensitive content, allowing the DLP system to block uploads of screenshots containing protected information.

Let’s review why the other options are less suitable:

Exact data match (EDM) (A) focuses on identifying exact sequences of text or data (like social security numbers or credit card numbers) from structured databases. EDM cannot analyze images or detect sensitive content in screenshots because it works by matching specific data points in text or files, not visual content.

Document fingerprinting (B) generates unique signatures based on document content to detect identical or very similar files. While effective for blocking exact duplicates of documents, fingerprinting cannot detect screenshots because screenshots are images rather than files with readable metadata or text content matching the original document.

Optical character recognition (OCR) (D) can extract text from images, making it somewhat useful to detect text-based content in screenshots. However, OCR requires clear, legible text and cannot reliably detect sensitive graphical elements like schematics or diagrams. Additionally, OCR alone may miss non-textual sensitive data, limiting its effectiveness.

Therefore, the ML image classifier is the most comprehensive and reliable choice. It offers the capability to automatically detect a wide range of sensitive visual content in screenshots, ensuring the firm’s DLP system effectively prevents sensitive document leaks, even when employees attempt to bypass file-based restrictions by uploading screenshots.

Question 5:

While reviewing the Malware Incident page, a file flagged by the Netskope Heuristics Engine has been identified as test data by the security team. You want to allow the security team to use this file. Based on the screenshot provided, 

Which two actions should you take? (Select two.)

A. Use the "Add To File Filter" option to include the IOC in a file list.
B. Reach out to the CrowdStrike administrator to have the file classified as safe.
C. Use the "Lookup VirusTotal" button to determine if this IOC is a false positive.
D. Set up a malware detection profile and add the file hash of the IOC to it.

Correct answer: A, C

Explanation:

When dealing with malware alerts triggered by Netskope's Heuristics Engine, it's important to verify whether the flagged file is genuinely malicious or mistakenly identified. Since the security team confirmed that the flagged file is test data and safe for use, the next steps should enable continued use without unnecessary blocks.

Option A is correct because adding the Indicator of Compromise (IOC) to a file filter by clicking "Add To File Filter" allows the system to recognize this file as safe in future scans. This prevents repetitive alerts for the same file, helping streamline security operations and reduce alert fatigue.

Option C is also correct. The "Lookup VirusTotal" button checks the file hash against VirusTotal’s extensive database, which aggregates results from numerous antivirus engines. This helps confirm whether the IOC is a false positive by comparing how multiple security vendors classify the file. This cross-verification provides confidence in whitelisting decisions.

Option B is less relevant here. Although involving the CrowdStrike administrator could be useful in other contexts, this scenario centers on Netskope’s detection. Immediate internal handling using Netskope’s tools is more efficient.

Option D involves a longer-term strategy by creating a malware detection profile and updating the hash list, but it is not the most direct or immediate solution. Since the file is already known to be safe, managing it via the file filter and VirusTotal lookup is preferable for quick remediation.

In summary, the best approach is to verify the file’s reputation using VirusTotal and then whitelist it through the file filter to avoid future false alerts.

Question 6:

Which object type should be selected when configuring a Malware Detection profile?

A. DLP profile
B. File profile
C. Domain profile
D. User profile

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

When setting up a Malware Detection profile, the primary focus is to identify malicious files that could harm the network or devices. Therefore, the correct object to select is a File profile. This profile is designed specifically to scan, detect, and analyze files based on their content, signatures, and behaviors to uncover malware.

The File profile enables security systems to inspect files moving through the network or stored in systems, looking for suspicious patterns or known malware signatures. This object is essential because most malware is delivered via infected files—executables, documents, or archives—and scanning at the file level is a fundamental defense mechanism.

Option A, a DLP profile, relates to Data Loss Prevention. It aims to protect sensitive information by preventing unauthorized data transfers or leaks. While important, it is not focused on malware detection.

Option C, the Domain profile, is used to monitor or filter traffic based on domain names or URLs. This can help block access to malicious sites but does not directly detect malware embedded in files.

Option D, the User profile, monitors user activities and behavior patterns, which can be useful for identifying insider threats or compromised accounts. However, it does not target the detection of malware within files.

In conclusion, the File profile is the proper choice for a Malware Detection profile because it directly targets the detection and handling of potentially malicious files, which are the primary vectors for malware infection in most network environments.

Question 7:

How does Netskope handle securing Microsoft Exchange and Gmail SMTP traffic for Data Loss Prevention (DLP) when using the Netskope client?

A. Netskope inspects outbound SMTP traffic for Microsoft Exchange and Gmail.
B. Activating Cloud Firewall enables inspection of inbound SMTP traffic for Microsoft Exchange and Gmail.
C. Netskope inspects both inbound and outbound SMTP traffic for Microsoft Exchange and Gmail.
D. Enabling REST API v2 allows inspection of inbound SMTP traffic for Microsoft Exchange and Gmail.

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

When securing Microsoft Exchange and Gmail SMTP traffic for DLP with the Netskope client, the main focus is on inspecting outbound SMTP traffic. Netskope is a cloud security platform designed to monitor and control data flows, especially related to SaaS applications like email services. The Netskope client acts as a local agent on endpoints, channeling outbound traffic through Netskope’s inspection engines.

In this context, outbound SMTP traffic refers to emails being sent from users through Microsoft Exchange or Gmail. Inspecting this traffic is critical to prevent sensitive or confidential data from being accidentally or deliberately sent outside the organization. Netskope’s ability to analyze outgoing SMTP communications enables effective data loss prevention by scanning email content and attachments for sensitive information before they leave the network.

Looking at the options:

• Option A is correct because Netskope’s client specifically inspects outbound SMTP traffic for Microsoft Exchange and Gmail, which aligns with its primary role in DLP scenarios.

• Option B is incorrect since Netskope’s Cloud Firewall is more about controlling network traffic to and from cloud services, not specifically inspecting inbound SMTP traffic. Also, inbound SMTP traffic typically arrives at email servers and is less relevant to endpoint-based inspection.

• Option C is partially inaccurate because while Netskope inspects outbound SMTP traffic effectively, inspecting inbound SMTP traffic isn’t a typical function of the Netskope client. Inbound traffic is generally managed by the email servers themselves or other dedicated security solutions.

• Option D is incorrect because REST API v2 in Netskope is meant for integrating and managing cloud app security policies and not for inspecting SMTP traffic directly, especially inbound emails.

In summary, Netskope’s strength with the client lies in monitoring outbound SMTP traffic from Microsoft Exchange and Gmail to protect sensitive data from leaking via email, making A the correct answer.

Question 8:

When files are quarantined as a result of a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policy, where are these files actually stored?

A. Your own data center specified in the Quarantine profile
B. The Netskope data center specified in the Quarantine profile
C. The cloud provider specified in the Quarantine profile
D. On the administrator’s local console PC specified in the Quarantine profile

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

When a DLP policy triggers the quarantine of files, it is crucial that these files are stored securely and managed in a way that minimizes risk and complies with organizational security standards. Among the choices, the correct answer is that quarantined files are stored in the Netskope data center assigned in the Quarantine profile. Netskope’s platform is designed to handle sensitive quarantined data within its secure cloud infrastructure, providing a controlled environment that ensures confidentiality, integrity, and compliance.

Storing quarantined files in Netskope’s data center allows organizations to isolate potentially risky data without exposing it to end-users or administrators unnecessarily. This approach supports centralized management, auditability, and rapid remediation or review when needed.

The other options are less appropriate for several reasons:

• Storing files locally in your own data center (Option A) can increase risk and complicate secure handling, as it requires additional on-premises security measures and lacks the cloud scalability and integrated controls Netskope provides.

• Storing quarantined files on a generic cloud provider (Option C) doesn’t align with the specific architecture of Netskope’s DLP solution, which uses its dedicated data centers for quarantine to maintain compliance and security consistency.

• Placing files on an administrator’s PC (Option D) is highly insecure and impractical, as it creates risks of accidental exposure and lacks the proper controls expected for handling sensitive quarantined data.

In summary, the Netskope data center is the designated, secure repository for quarantined files triggered by DLP policies, ensuring proper security posture and operational efficiency.

Question 9:

If you are facing problems with the periodic synchronization of user and group information from your domain controller to your Netskope cloud tenant, which component should you check first?

A. On-Premises Location Parser
B. Directory Importer
C. DNS Connector
D. Active Directory (AD) Connector

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

The process of regularly fetching and updating user and group data from an on-premises domain controller to the Netskope cloud tenant is primarily handled by the Directory Importer. Therefore, if there are issues with user or group synchronization, the Directory Importer is the logical first component to investigate.

The Directory Importer acts as the bridge that pulls directory information—such as users and groups—from the enterprise Active Directory or domain controller and imports that data into the Netskope cloud environment. Problems with this component, such as misconfigurations, network connectivity failures, or authentication errors, can cause incomplete or failed synchronization, leading to outdated or missing user data in the cloud tenant.

Looking at the other options clarifies why they are less likely to be the cause:

• The On-Premises Location Parser (Option A) is mainly responsible for interpreting location-related data or network traffic logs, not for syncing directory user/group information.

• The DNS Connector (Option C) manages DNS-related operations and assists with network name resolution, which is unrelated to directory synchronization.

• The AD Connector (Option D) facilitates integration between on-premises Active Directory and Netskope but doesn’t handle the actual periodic fetching of user and group info—that is the Directory Importer’s role.

In troubleshooting this kind of issue, the first step is to check the Directory Importer’s configuration, logs, and connectivity. Ensuring that it can communicate with the domain controller, has proper credentials, and is functioning correctly will often resolve synchronization problems. Only after confirming the Directory Importer’s health would it be appropriate to check other related components.

Question 10:

Based on the nsADImporterLog.log, what could explain why the Netskope client installed for the user Clarke remains disabled?

A. The client was installed without administrative rights.
B. The Active Directory user account is not synchronized with the Netskope tenant.
C. This behavior is normal and the client may take up to an hour to enable.
D. The client traffic is being decrypted by a network security device.

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

The issue of the Netskope client remaining in a disabled state after installation often ties back to how the system recognizes and synchronizes user accounts. According to the nsADImporterLog.log, the root cause is most likely that the Active Directory (AD) user account for Clarke has not been properly synchronized with the Netskope tenant.

Synchronization between the on-premises AD and the Netskope cloud tenant is essential for activating and associating clients with the correct user profiles and security policies. Without this synchronization, the Netskope system cannot fully enable the client for use, because it cannot verify or apply the appropriate user-based controls.

The other options are less likely to be correct based on the log data and typical behavior:

• While installing software with administrative privileges is important (Option A), the logs do not indicate permission or installation errors that would explain a disabled client state.

• It is possible for client activation to take some time (Option C), but extended or indefinite disabling usually points to deeper integration issues, not normal delays.

• Traffic decryption by network devices (Option D) relates to traffic inspection and security policies but does not directly cause the client itself to be disabled. The logs emphasize synchronization rather than traffic handling.

In conclusion, the most plausible explanation is the lack of proper synchronization of the user Clarke’s AD account with the Netskope tenant, which prevents the client from being enabled. Fixing synchronization issues typically resolves the disabled client problem.