PMI-SP PMI Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

After the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is finalized, which project management activity is typically performed next?

A. Estimate activity resources
B. Define activities
C. Estimate activity durations
D. Sequence activities

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The creation of the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) marks a crucial point in the planning phase of a project. The WBS breaks down the overall project scope into smaller, more manageable work packages. Once this hierarchical decomposition is complete, the next step in the planning process is to convert these work packages into specific, actionable tasks or steps that can be scheduled, tracked, and managed. This is exactly what happens in the Define Activities process.

Option B, Define Activities, is the correct answer because it directly follows the creation of the WBS in the project management flow. In this process, each work package from the WBS is further decomposed into individual activities. These activities represent the specific units of work that need to be executed in order to produce the deliverables listed in the WBS. This process sets the stage for more detailed schedule-related tasks, such as estimating how long each activity will take and in what order they should be completed.

Now let’s briefly explore why the other options are premature at this stage:

• Option A: Estimate activity resources – This occurs after the activities have been defined. You need to know what the tasks are before you can determine the type and quantity of resources required to perform them.

• Option C: Estimate activity durations – Like resource estimation, duration estimation is dependent on having clearly defined activities. Without knowing what the activity entails and the resources that will perform it, accurate duration estimates are not possible.

• Option D: Sequence activities – Sequencing requires a complete list of defined activities so their logical relationships and dependencies can be determined. Therefore, sequencing is also a subsequent step after activities have been defined.

To summarize, the Define Activities process acts as the bridge between the scope defined in the WBS and the more granular elements needed to develop a project schedule. It is a foundational step within the Project Schedule Management knowledge area and must occur before other processes such as estimating resources, durations, or creating the activity sequence. Hence, B is the correct and most logical choice.

Question 2:

Which scheduling method is used to visually establish both the preceding and succeeding relationships between tasks in a project schedule?

A. Precedence Diagramming Method
B. Schedule network template
C. Dependency determination
D. Activity on the Node

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) is a widely used scheduling technique in project management that allows project managers to define the logical flow and relationships between activities in a project. It provides a structured approach to sequencing tasks by establishing which activities come before (predecessors) and which follow after (successors).

PDM is part of the Sequence Activities process and uses nodes (boxes) to represent individual tasks or activities. The connections between these nodes, often represented by arrows, illustrate the dependencies between tasks. This method helps identify the correct sequence of project work, which is crucial for creating realistic and achievable project schedules.

There are four types of logical relationships defined in PDM:

• Finish-to-Start (FS): One task must finish before the next begins. (Most common)

• Finish-to-Finish (FF): One task must finish before the next can finish.

• Start-to-Start (SS): One task must start before the next can start.

• Start-to-Finish (SF): One task must start before another can finish. (Rare)
  
  

These dependency types allow for flexibility and precision in scheduling, enabling project managers to map out complex interdependencies and plan for constraints or lead/lag times.

Let’s now clarify why the other options are incorrect:

• B. Schedule network template is a tool or pre-existing model used to streamline the creation of project schedules in similar or recurring projects. While helpful, it does not actively define task relationships or visualize sequencing like PDM does.

• C. Dependency determination is a process, not a scheduling method. It identifies the type of dependencies (mandatory, discretionary, internal, external) that might exist between tasks, but it does not visually map out the sequence of those tasks.

• D. Activity on the Node (AON) is a representation format used within PDM, where activities are shown as nodes in the diagram. While it is part of the PDM, it is not a standalone scheduling method. AON is a component, not the method itself.

In conclusion, the Precedence Diagramming Method is the correct answer because it provides a visual and logical structure for sequencing tasks based on their dependencies. It enables a clear understanding of how activities relate to one another, which is essential for building an accurate and efficient project schedule.

Question 3:

You are managing the NHGQ project and are responsible for sending weekly performance reports to stakeholders. 

What is the most suitable communication method to ensure these reports are distributed to the right people on time?

A. Push communication technique
B. Many-to-many communication model
C. One-to-one communication format
D. Pull communication technique

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In project communications management, how information is distributed plays a crucial role in ensuring stakeholders remain informed, aligned, and engaged. In this scenario, the project manager is tasked with preparing and delivering weekly performance reports to key stakeholders. These reports are not requested individually by stakeholders but are expected to be delivered proactively. Based on this context, the push communication technique is the most accurate and effective method.

The push communication technique involves sending information directly to specific recipients without them having to request it. This technique is especially useful when the information must be delivered to multiple stakeholders on a scheduled basis. Examples include emails, memos, reports, and notifications. Since the performance reports are shared weekly and proactively, push communication ensures timely and consistent delivery of critical updates.

Let’s analyze why the other options are incorrect or less appropriate:

• Option B: Many-to-many communication refers to an interactive, collaborative setting where multiple stakeholders share and exchange information simultaneously. This model is best suited for brainstorming sessions, team meetings, or agile stand-ups—not for formal performance reporting, which is typically one-way.

• Option C: One-to-one communication involves personalized interaction between two individuals, such as a project manager and a specific stakeholder. While useful for clarifying issues or delivering sensitive information, this method does not scale well for routine dissemination of project reports to a group.

• Option D: Pull communication technique makes information available for stakeholders to access at their convenience, such as uploading reports to a shared drive or project portal. While this approach reduces effort on the sender's part, it relies on stakeholders to retrieve the information themselves. Given that the project manager is responsible for distributing the reports, this method does not fulfill the requirement.

In conclusion, because the project manager is actively sending out the weekly reports to stakeholders—rather than making them available on request or engaging in interactive communication—the push technique is the appropriate choice. This method aligns with PMI’s standard communication models and ensures that all stakeholders receive updates promptly, even if they don't actively seek them out.

Question 4:

During the execution phase of your project, stakeholders offer a 25% bonus if you can complete the project 30 days early. However, they strictly prohibit any increase in labor costs. 

What strategy should you adopt to reduce the project timeline under these conditions?

A. Apply resource leveling techniques
B. Use crashing to accelerate the schedule
C. Implement fast tracking for eligible tasks
D. Eliminate certain elements from the project scope

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The situation described presents a classic schedule compression challenge—you are incentivized to complete the project earlier than planned, but without incurring any extra labor costs. This constraint makes it necessary to explore strategies that reduce duration without adding resources or budget. Among the available options, fast tracking is the only method that satisfies these conditions.

Fast tracking is a technique where activities that are typically performed in sequence are instead performed in parallel, where possible. This method focuses on modifying the logical relationships between tasks to allow for overlap. For example, in a construction project, you might begin interior design work before structural work is fully completed—if the two can progress simultaneously without creating quality or safety risks.

Why fast tracking is ideal here:

• It doesn’t involve additional expenses or resource allocation.

• It can be applied during the project execution phase.

• It offers a way to compress the schedule without violating the cost constraint.

• It maintains the original project scope and quality, assuming risks are managed.

Now, let’s break down the other options and why they are unsuitable:

• Option A: Resource leveling is used when resources are over-allocated. It adjusts task start and finish dates based on resource availability, typically delaying tasks to resolve conflicts. Therefore, resource leveling often extends the schedule, not shortens it.

• Option B: Crashing is another schedule compression technique but involves adding resources to tasks on the critical path to speed them up. Since the stakeholders prohibit any increase in labor costs, crashing directly violates this constraint, making it an invalid choice in this scenario.
  
  

• Option D: Removing elements from the scope may reduce the timeline but changes the project's agreed-upon deliverables. The stakeholders only asked for the project to be finished earlier without cost adjustments; they didn’t authorize any scope reduction. Therefore, changing the scope would require renegotiation and possibly undermine project objectives.

In summary, fast tracking is the best-fit strategy because it meets all of the stakeholders’ requirements: reducing time, avoiding additional cost, and maintaining scope integrity. While it may increase project risk (due to overlapping tasks), those risks can be mitigated with proper planning and oversight. Thus, fast tracking is the correct and most appropriate answer.

Question 5:

Following the Define Activities process, which of the following items is NOT considered an official output of this process?

A. Activity list
B. Milestone list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project document updates

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Define Activities process is a fundamental part of project schedule management, as outlined in the PMBOK® Guide. This process takes place after the creation of the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) and aims to break down the deliverables outlined in the WBS into specific tasks or activities that can be sequenced, resourced, and scheduled. By doing this, project managers lay the groundwork for developing an accurate and realistic schedule.

To carry out this process, several tools and techniques are employed. These include decomposition, which breaks work packages into smaller components; expert judgment, which brings in the insight of experienced individuals; rolling wave planning, where planning is done progressively; and the use of templates, which can draw from historical project data.

Upon completion, the Define Activities process yields three primary outputs:

• Activity List (A): This is a comprehensive catalog of all activities required to produce the deliverables. Each entry in this list represents a discrete task that can be assigned, monitored, and tracked.

• Activity Attributes (C): These are detailed descriptors for each activity, which may include the activity ID, name, description, responsible party, duration, start and end dates, required resources, and other relevant metadata. These attributes are essential for later planning processes such as sequencing and estimating.

• Project Document Updates (D): As activities are defined, related project documents—like assumptions logs, risk registers, or resource calendars—might need to be revised to reflect updated or refined information.

The Milestone List (B), however, is not one of the outputs of the Define Activities process. Milestones are significant events or decision points within a project—such as the completion of a phase or the signing of a contract—but they are typically identified earlier in project planning, particularly during Define Scope or Create WBS. Milestones do not result from the decomposition of work packages into activities, which is the focus of Define Activities.

To summarize, the outputs that directly result from the Define Activities process are the activity list, activity attributes, and updates to relevant project documents. The milestone list, though critical to the schedule, originates from earlier processes and is not a byproduct of activity definition. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Question 6:

One of your team members is unclear about the concept of a milestone in project management. How should you best explain what a milestone represents?

A. A key point of significance in the project timeline
B. A predefined goal involving the delivery of project benefits by a target date
C. A fixed deadline that must be met at a specific point in the project
D. The conclusion of a critical task necessary for project success

Answer: A

Explanation:

In project management, a milestone is a specific marker used to denote a major point of progress within a project. It is not a task or a deliverable in itself but rather a symbolic reference to the completion of a major phase, decision point, or deliverable. Unlike regular project activities, milestones have zero duration and serve solely as checkpoints to help assess progress and ensure that the project is advancing as planned.

The correct description of a milestone is best captured in Option A: it is a significant point in the project timeline. Milestones might include major achievements such as the completion of a phase, stakeholder sign-off, delivery of a key document, or go-live events. They are critical for tracking project performance, enabling status reporting, and providing clarity to stakeholders on what has been achieved and what lies ahead.

Option B misinterprets milestones by equating them with project goals or benefits delivery. While milestones may align with such goals, they are not goals themselves. They are timeline indicators, not outcome-oriented objectives.

Option C focuses on imposed deadlines, which are constraints but not inherently milestones. A milestone may be associated with a deadline, but its essence is in marking significant achievements—not just reaching a calendar date.

Option D incorrectly defines a milestone as the completion of a crucial activity. While milestones may reflect the conclusion of key activities, they are not the activities themselves. Milestones stand outside the flow of task execution and are used to summarize and signal accomplishment rather than to perform work.

Milestones are vital to effective schedule management and communication. They allow project managers and teams to establish reference points and assess whether critical phases are being completed on time. They also provide stakeholders with an easy way to understand project progress at a high level.

In conclusion, the most accurate way to describe a milestone is as a significant point in the project, making Option A the best and most precise explanation.

Question 7:

You’ve been tasked with developing a process improvement plan for the GHY Project, which is being positioned as a model for future initiatives. 

Which of the following components is generally not included in a process improvement plan?

A. Defining the start and end points of a process
B. Documenting the structure and configuration of project processes
C. Establishing measurable improvement goals
D. Identifying risks that may impact project success

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

A process improvement plan is a vital part of project planning, aimed at identifying ways to refine existing processes, reduce inefficiencies, and increase overall performance. This plan typically forms part of the Perform Quality Assurance process and serves as a guide for improving operational effectiveness throughout the project lifecycle.

Three essential elements commonly found in such a plan include:

• Process Boundaries (Option A): This refers to clearly outlining where a process begins and ends, including what triggers its initiation, what inputs it requires, and what outputs it produces. This delineation helps prevent scope overlap and clarifies responsibilities.

• Process Configuration (Option B): This describes how different processes interrelate. It maps out dependencies and the flow of actions, allowing project managers to better understand how a change in one process might affect others.

• Targets for Improved Performance (Option C): These are quantifiable goals such as decreasing cycle times, reducing costs, or enhancing product quality. By setting specific performance targets, the team can measure whether implemented improvements are effective.

However, Option D, identifying project risks, does not belong in a process improvement plan. Instead, risk identification is part of the risk management plan, which deals with forecasting uncertainties that might negatively impact the project's success. While both the process improvement plan and risk management plan aim to boost project outcomes, they focus on different aspects: one targets process optimization, and the other addresses potential threats and uncertainties.

The confusion between the two might arise because both can contribute to better project execution. However, they are handled by different knowledge areas in project management—quality management for process improvement, and risk management for handling uncertainties.

To summarize, while a process improvement plan aims to streamline workflows and enhance quality through structural and performance-related refinements, it does not typically include risk identification, making Option D the correct answer.

Question 8:

George is leading the NHQ Project with a total budget of $778,000. The project is evenly scheduled over four quarters. After two quarters, the team has spent $325,000, but only 40% of the work is done. 

Management has requested the current schedule variance. What should George report?

A. 0.96
B. –$77,800
C. –$34,500
D. –$13,800

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

To calculate Schedule Variance (SV) in project management, we use the formula:

SV = Earned Value (EV) – Planned Value (PV)

Let’s break this down using the information provided:

• Total Project Budget (BAC): $778,000

• Project Duration: 1 year (4 quarters)

• Planned Progress at End of Q2: 50% (since two out of four quarters are complete)

• Actual Progress (EV): 40% of $778,000 = $311,200

• Planned Value (PV): 50% of $778,000 = $389,000

Now apply the SV formula:

SV = EV – PV = $311,200 – $389,000 = –$77,800

This result tells us the project is behind schedule by $77,800 worth of work. In other words, at this point in the schedule, the team was expected to have completed $389,000 worth of work but has only completed $311,200.

Now let’s look at why the other options are incorrect:

• Option A (0.96) might resemble the Schedule Performance Index (SPI), which is calculated as EV ÷ PV = 311,200 ÷ 389,000 ≈ 0.80, not 0.96. Even if it were SPI, the question asks for SV, not a performance ratio.

• Option C (–$34,500) could be confused with Cost Variance (CV), calculated as EV – Actual Cost, which here would be $311,200 – $325,000 = –$13,800, but that’s not what the question asks.

• Option D (–$13,800) is actually the Cost Variance, not the schedule variance.
  
  

Therefore, the correct Schedule Variance is –$77,800, indicating the project is behind in scheduled progress. This makes Option B the accurate and appropriate response.

Question 9:

Which two of the following are essential inputs when developing a project schedule according to the PMI-SP framework? (Choose 2.)

A. Resource calendars
B. Lessons learned register
C. Activity list
D. Cost baseline
E. Change log

Correct Answers: A, C

Explanation:

Developing a comprehensive and realistic project schedule is a key responsibility for a Scheduling Professional. The PMI-SP framework emphasizes a structured approach to schedule development, which relies on well-defined inputs.

Option A, resource calendars, are essential inputs because they define the availability of resources—both human and material—over time. A project schedule must reflect the realistic capacity of these resources. For example, if a specific subject matter expert is only available on Mondays and Wednesdays, the schedule must align activities that require their input accordingly. These calendars help avoid unrealistic scheduling and resource over-allocation, thereby improving schedule feasibility.

Option C, activity list, is also a critical input. This document outlines all project work that needs to be performed. Each activity must be clearly defined before durations can be estimated or dependencies can be created. Without a complete activity list, it is impossible to construct a logical sequence of tasks, which is the backbone of any project schedule.

Option B, lessons learned register, while valuable for continuous improvement and planning, is not a direct input to schedule development. It may inform estimates or risks but does not contain the tangible data required to build the schedule.

Option D, cost baseline, pertains to budgeting rather than scheduling. While there is often a correlation between cost and schedule, the cost baseline is used primarily for cost control, not for sequencing or timing activities.

Option E, change log, is a document that records all changes during the life of the project. It is more relevant during schedule control than during the initial schedule development phase.

In summary, resource calendars ensure that the availability of personnel and assets is taken into account, and the activity list provides the foundational structure for the schedule. These two components are indispensable in creating a realistic and actionable project timeline.

Question 10:

What are two valid outputs of the "Control Schedule" process as defined in the PMI-SP standard? (Choose 2.)

A. Schedule forecasts
B. Work performance data
C. Change requests
D. Activity resource requirements
E. Stakeholder engagement plan

Correct Answers: A, C

Explanation:

The Control Schedule process in the PMI-SP framework is part of the Monitoring and Controlling process group. Its purpose is to track the status of the project schedule, manage changes to the baseline, and ensure that schedule performance aligns with the overall project plan.

Option A, schedule forecasts, is a valid and important output. These forecasts are derived from ongoing analysis of schedule performance, such as earned schedule or performance indices. Forecasts help the team and stakeholders understand future project performance based on current trends. They can include estimates like revised end dates or resource usage projections and are vital for decision-making.

Option C, change requests, are also a direct output of this process. When variances between the actual progress and the baseline are discovered, change requests may be necessary to realign the schedule with project objectives. These could include altering activity sequences, extending timelines, or requesting additional resources. Change requests are reviewed through the integrated change control process and can result in updates to the project schedule baseline.

Now consider the incorrect choices:

Option B, work performance data, is actually an input to the Control Schedule process, not an output. This data includes raw information on task completion, resource usage, and dates, which are used to evaluate performance.

Option D, activity resource requirements, are typically developed during earlier planning processes such as "Estimate Activity Resources." They are not produced during schedule control.

Option E, stakeholder engagement plan, is part of project communications and stakeholder management, not scheduling. It is developed in the planning stage and does not result from controlling the schedule.

In conclusion, schedule forecasts and change requests are key outputs that reflect proactive schedule management. They enable the project team to communicate future expectations and adapt to deviations from the plan—central to maintaining project success.