PRINCE2 Agile Foundation PRINCE2 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question 1:
Which group’s interests does the senior supplier primarily represent within a PRINCE2 project?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Within the PRINCE2 project management framework, the senior supplier is a critical member of the project board who represents the interests of the supplier side. This role ensures that the parties responsible for delivering the project’s products have a voice in decision-making, and that the technical and resource aspects of product delivery are appropriately managed.
Breaking down the options:
Statement 1 involves those focused on the project’s financial value and return on investment. This responsibility falls under the executive role, who safeguards business interests and ensures the project aligns with organizational strategy and delivers value. Thus, this is not the senior supplier’s domain.
Statement 2 refers to the senior user role, who advocates for those who will ultimately use the products or services. Their priority is ensuring that the end result meets operational needs and user requirements, which differs from the supplier’s focus.
Statement 3 clearly aligns with the senior supplier. This individual oversees the teams and resources that develop the products, ensuring the right expertise and personnel are applied to build the project outputs.
Statement 4 also falls under the senior supplier’s responsibility, as they ensure the technical integrity of the products. This means making sure designs and solutions meet organizational standards for quality, security, scalability, and overall technical robustness.
In summary, the senior supplier acts as the representative of those who build the products and those who uphold their technical quality. Hence, statements 3 and 4 are accurate reflections of the senior supplier’s responsibilities on the project board.
Question 2:
What is the primary purpose of conducting a workshop in a project or agile environment?
A. To make daily progress transparent to the team and key stakeholders
B. To promote teamwork and produce specific outcomes from the session
C. To share decisions with a wider audience of stakeholders
D. To make routine decisions on behalf of the delivery team during a sprint
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Workshops are fundamental collaborative tools widely used across project management, agile practices, and design thinking to bring together a diverse group of stakeholders with the aim of solving problems, generating ideas, or planning solutions. The essential goal of a workshop is not merely to communicate progress or disseminate information but to foster active collaboration and produce well-defined deliverables within a structured time frame.
Looking at the options:
Option A refers to making daily progress visible. This activity is more closely related to daily stand-ups or scrum meetings, where the focus is on transparency regarding ongoing tasks and obstacles, rather than collaborative output generation.
Option C involves communicating decisions to a broader stakeholder community. While workshops may culminate in decisions, the communication of those decisions is usually handled separately via reports, emails, or presentations. The workshop itself is primarily focused on jointly creating those decisions.
Option D suggests making daily operational decisions within a sprint. These responsibilities usually belong to the product owner or project leads and occur continuously rather than in discrete, time-boxed workshops.
The most fitting choice is Option B, as workshops are highly interactive sessions designed to bring together participants—such as developers, users, designers, and stakeholders—to collaborate intensively. These sessions clarify challenges, align goals, and create tangible outputs like user personas, solution prototypes, roadmaps, or prioritized backlogs. Workshops accelerate consensus-building and decision-making through facilitated activities, visual aids, and focused discussions, reducing prolonged email chains or fragmented meetings.
The success of a workshop is often measured by the quality and clarity of the outputs produced and the level of engagement among participants, making it a powerful tool for driving projects forward. Thus, encouraging collaboration and producing defined outputs is the fundamental objective, accurately reflected by option B.
Question 3:
Which statement accurately describes the Waterfall methodology?
A. Deadlines must never be adjusted
B. Each development phase has clear, distinct objectives
C. It encourages transparent behaviors in the team
D. It supports conducting scientific experiments during development
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
The Waterfall methodology is a traditional and linear approach to project management, particularly common in software development’s early days. It organizes the development process into a series of clearly defined phases, each with specific goals that must be fully completed before the next begins. These phases typically include requirements gathering, system design, coding, testing, deployment, and maintenance.
Option B is correct because the Waterfall method emphasizes distinct goals and deliverables for each stage. This structured, sequential progression helps ensure clarity and discipline throughout the project. By having clear phase boundaries and objectives, teams can focus on completing one area thoroughly before moving forward, which reduces ambiguity and makes progress easier to track and manage.
Option A is incorrect because while Waterfall projects often have fixed deadlines, the methodology does not explicitly forbid adjusting deadlines if necessary. Real-world constraints may require schedule flexibility even in Waterfall environments.
Option C refers to transparency, a core principle of Agile methodologies that focus on continuous communication and collaboration. Waterfall does not inherently promote transparency as part of its process; it is more rigid and phase-driven.
Option D relates to experimentation and iterative learning, which are central to Agile and Lean practices but not Waterfall. Waterfall assumes that requirements are well understood upfront, so it does not incorporate iterative experimentation or adaptation.
In summary, the defining characteristic of Waterfall is its phase-based approach, with clearly delineated goals for each step in the process. This makes B the only correct answer among the options, reflecting Waterfall’s structured and sequential development style.
Question 4:
In PRINCE2 Agile, what is the primary purpose of product-based planning?
A. To monitor progress against the team’s schedule
B. To develop the project plan through empirical methods
C. To allow team planning to follow a predictive model
D. To concentrate planning efforts on required features
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
Product-based planning is a key technique used in PRINCE2 and is integral to PRINCE2 Agile, blending traditional project management with agile delivery methods. The focus of product-based planning is on identifying and defining all the products or deliverables that the project must produce. This approach shifts attention from the activities or timelines to the tangible outcomes—what needs to be created to deliver value.
In PRINCE2 Agile, product-based planning is used to ensure that teams plan around the features or products required, which aligns well with agile’s incremental and iterative nature. Thus, option D is correct because it highlights that planning centers on defining and prioritizing the features or deliverables that stakeholders expect.
Option A is incorrect because tracking progress is usually managed by tools and techniques such as burndown charts or Kanban boards within agile practices. Product-based planning itself focuses on what should be delivered rather than monitoring how the team performs against a plan.
Option B incorrectly associates product-based planning with empiricism. Empiricism, a core agile principle, involves learning through experience and adapting plans accordingly. Product-based planning, on the other hand, is a structured upfront activity focused on defining products, not on the iterative learning process.
Option C suggests that product-based planning enables predictive (fixed and upfront) team planning. However, PRINCE2 Agile supports flexibility and adaptation rather than rigid predictive planning. Product-based planning provides clarity on deliverables without enforcing strict timelines or fixed scopes.
To conclude, product-based planning in PRINCE2 Agile ensures teams focus on the specific features and products required, facilitating alignment with business value and user needs. It complements agile’s adaptive workflows by providing a clear picture of what outcomes the project aims to achieve, making D the best choice.
Question 5:
Which of the following statements accurately describes a responsibility of the Project Board during the "Directing a Project" process?
A. The Project Board should participate regularly in project progress meetings
B. The Project Board should base decisions on risks identified by the Agilometer
C. A member of the Project Board should act as the Product Owner within the delivery team
D. The Project Board should extend the time tolerance for each project stage
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
The "Directing a Project" process in PRINCE2 outlines the key duties of the Project Board, which is responsible for overall project direction and governance. This process empowers the Project Board to make high-level decisions such as authorizing project initiation, approving stage plans, handling exceptions, and ultimately closing the project. The Project Manager handles the detailed daily management, keeping the Project Board informed but without involving them in routine operations.
Option B is correct because the Agilometer is a specialized assessment tool used in PRINCE2 Agile environments to evaluate the risks associated with adopting agile practices in a project. It measures six risk areas, such as collaboration, delivery approach, and risk tolerance, helping the Project Board understand the agile suitability of the project environment. Using this risk assessment enables the Project Board to make informed decisions on governance and project direction, aligning with PRINCE2 Agile’s emphasis on tailoring controls to suit agility and responsiveness.
Option A is incorrect because the Project Board is intended to oversee the project from a governance level, not get involved in day-to-day progress meetings. Regular attendance in progress meetings is a management responsibility, not a governance one.
Option C is also incorrect as the Product Owner role belongs to the delivery team, focusing on product backlog and user stories. Having a Project Board member serve as Product Owner would blur governance and delivery roles, creating conflicts.
Option D is wrong because tolerances are set and managed primarily by higher management or corporate governance. The Project Board does not arbitrarily increase stage time tolerances, which would undermine controlled progress.
In summary, the Project Board should use tools like the Agilometer to make governance decisions that balance PRINCE2 and Agile principles effectively.
Question 6:
Which TWO of the following describe the main purposes of a Highlight Report in PRINCE2?
A. To explain the MoSCoW priority ranking of user stories
B. To provide a summary of the status of a work package
C. To give a summary of the current stage’s progress and status
D. To report any potential issues or risks affecting the stage
Correct answer: C and D
Explanation:
A Highlight Report is an essential communication tool in PRINCE2 project management, primarily prepared by the Project Manager to inform the Project Board about the current state of a project stage. Its main goal is to provide a clear, concise overview of progress, risks, and issues to enable effective governance decisions.
Option C is correct because one of the core purposes of the Highlight Report is to summarize the status of the current stage. This includes progress made against the Stage Plan, key milestones achieved, variances in schedule or costs, and any corrective actions underway. The Project Board uses this information to maintain an overview of the project’s health without delving into operational details.
Option D is also correct. Highlight Reports flag emerging issues and risks that may impact the stage’s success. While other reports such as Issue Reports or Risk Registers go into more detail, the Highlight Report offers the Project Board early visibility of potential problems so they can intervene or support as needed.
Option A is incorrect because MoSCoW prioritization deals with Agile backlog prioritization and user stories, which is outside the scope of a Highlight Report. This report focuses on stage-level progress and governance, not detailed requirements management.
Option B is incorrect because the status of work packages is captured in Checkpoint Reports, which provide more granular updates from Team Managers to the Project Manager. Highlight Reports aggregate this information to present stage-level summaries to the Project Board.
In conclusion, the Highlight Report is a strategic communication tool designed to keep the Project Board informed about overall stage progress and any significant risks or issues. It ensures transparency at the governance level without micromanaging work package details or user story priorities.
Question 7:
What is the most crucial aspect to understand when distinguishing between scope and quality for effective prioritization?
A. Combining functional and non-functional requirements
B. Developing non-functional requirements as user stories
C. Distinguishing functional requirements from non-functional requirements
D. Establishing non-functional requirements before functional ones
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
In software and systems development projects, especially those following Agile or DevOps practices, successfully prioritizing work depends heavily on a clear understanding of the difference between scope and quality. This understanding directly relates to distinguishing functional requirements from non-functional requirements.
Functional requirements specify what the system must do. These are the tangible features or functionalities users expect, such as user authentication, form submissions, report generation, or transaction processing. These requirements define the scope of the project—the specific deliverables that need to be created.
Non-functional requirements, however, describe how the system should perform. This category includes performance metrics, scalability, reliability, usability, security, and maintainability. These factors collectively determine the quality of the final product—how well it operates under different conditions and how satisfied users will be with it.
Prioritization demands that teams clearly differentiate between these two types of requirements. Without this distinction, teams risk focusing too much on adding features (scope) while neglecting performance or user experience (quality), or vice versa. For example, delivering all functional features but with poor performance will likely disappoint users, whereas overemphasizing system quality without completing essential features can delay project goals.
The other options are less suitable:
A (Combining requirements) can blur the lines needed for prioritization.
B (Writing non-functional requirements as user stories) is helpful for Agile documentation but not foundational for prioritizing based on scope vs. quality.
D (Defining non-functional before functional) doesn’t inherently assist prioritization; the order varies by methodology.
Therefore, the essential skill for prioritization is to differentiate functional from non-functional requirements, making C the best choice.
Question 8:
Why is the Lean Startup approach integrated into the 'starting up a project' process within PRINCE2 Agile?
A. Because it explains how small companies can expand using conventional technologies
B. Because it manages projects by delivering products in fixed timeboxes
C. Because it facilitates agile usage in situations full of uncertainty and complexity
D. Because running a project and launching a new business are identical activities
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Lean Startup is included in the 'starting up a project' process of PRINCE2 Agile because it provides a valuable framework for managing projects in environments characterized by uncertainty, ambiguity, and rapid change. Originally designed for entrepreneurs to test and validate business ideas quickly, Lean Startup emphasizes iterative learning, rapid prototyping, and customer feedback—all of which are vital when project requirements and outcomes are not fully known at the outset.
In PRINCE2 Agile, the 'starting up a project' phase is where teams assess whether the project is viable and strategically aligned. Early in a project, unknowns and assumptions abound, which can pose risks if not properly addressed. The Lean Startup methodology’s build-measure-learn loop helps teams test hypotheses, gather real user feedback, and adjust direction efficiently before committing extensive resources.
Option A is incorrect because Lean Startup is not primarily about traditional technology usage or conventional small business growth paths. It focuses on lean principles and experimentation rather than established growth strategies.
Option B is misleading as Lean Startup does not focus on delivering products strictly within fixed timeboxes—that is more typical of frameworks like Scrum or DSDM. Instead, Lean Startup concentrates on minimizing waste and maximizing validated learning.
Option D is wrong because managing a project and starting a business, while sharing some challenges, are fundamentally different. Projects have clear scopes and endpoints, while businesses involve ongoing operations and strategic growth.
Thus, the main reason Lean Startup is included in PRINCE2 Agile’s startup phase is its ability to support agile approaches in uncertain, complex conditions. This makes C the correct answer.
Question 9:
During a release review workshop, which project management process is most likely to be carried out?
A. Controlling a stage
B. Managing product delivery
C. Managing a stage boundary
D. Directing a project
Answer: C
Explanation:
A release review workshop is typically held at the end of a project phase or stage to assess the work completed, review outcomes, and decide the next steps for the project. This activity aligns closely with the PRINCE2 process called "Managing a Stage Boundary." This process ensures that the transition from one stage to another is controlled, reviewed, and planned carefully.
Let’s explore why Managing a Stage Boundary is the best fit compared to the other options:
Controlling a stage is about the day-to-day monitoring and management of a current stage. It involves handling risks, issues, and progress reports but is an ongoing operational activity, not a formal review workshop.
Managing product delivery focuses on the operational work of producing the project’s products or deliverables. This includes accepting work packages and ensuring deliverables are created, which is continuous rather than an evaluative session like a release review.
Managing a stage boundary is a distinct process performed at the end of a stage, where performance is reviewed, documentation updated (such as project plans and risk registers), and decisions are made about the project’s continuation or adjustment. The release review workshop is the forum for these activities.
Directing a project involves oversight and decision-making by the project board at a higher level throughout the entire project. While outputs from a release review inform this process, the workshop itself is not part of directing the project.
In summary, the release review workshop serves as a checkpoint where stakeholders review completed work and decide on the project’s future direction, which is precisely the purpose of Managing a Stage Boundary in PRINCE2. This process ensures that each stage closes properly and the next is well planned, making C the correct answer.
Question 10:
Which role best describes the senior user when adapting the organization theme in an agile-tailored project?
A. An agile sponsor
B. An executive sponsor
C. A coach
D. A super product owner
Answer: D
Explanation:
When tailoring PRINCE2 for agile environments, the role of the senior user takes on responsibilities similar to those in agile frameworks. The senior user’s primary focus is representing the users’ interests and ensuring the project’s outputs meet their needs, often bridging traditional governance and agile delivery.
Here is why “super product owner” is the best description compared to the others:
The term “agile sponsor” is not a standard role in PRINCE2 or agile frameworks and lacks a clear definition. Sponsors generally provide high-level support, but the senior user’s role is more hands-on regarding user requirements.
The executive sponsor is typically the highest authority responsible for the business justification and overall project success. This role is different from the senior user, who focuses specifically on ensuring the deliverables provide the necessary functionality and benefits for end users.
A coach, such as an agile coach or Scrum Master, facilitates the team’s adoption of agile methods and removes obstacles but does not represent the user perspective or manage product requirements.
The super product owner analogy fits well because, in agile, a product owner is responsible for maximizing value by managing the product backlog and prioritizing work. The senior user in PRINCE2, when combined with agile, takes on a broader role overseeing user needs across multiple teams or product owners. This expanded role means they not only ensure deliverables meet user expectations but also monitor quality, benefit realization, and alignment with business needs.
This "super product owner" role helps integrate PRINCE2’s governance with agile’s product-focused mindset, ensuring user needs remain central to project decisions. Therefore, the senior user is best described as a super product owner when tailoring the organization theme for agile projects, making D the correct answer.
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