CompTIA SK0-005 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Which type of software licensing is most commonly used for cloud-based services, and what makes it more suitable than traditional models like perpetual, site-based, or per-socket licensing?

A. Per socket
B. Perpetual
C. Subscription-based
D. Site-based

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In the evolving landscape of cloud computing, subscription-based licensing has become the dominant model for delivering software services. This shift is largely due to the model’s compatibility with the core features of cloud environments, such as elasticity, scalability, and cost efficiency.

Unlike traditional licensing models, subscription-based licensing charges users on a recurring basis, either monthly, annually, or by usage metrics like compute hours or data volume. This allows customers to scale their subscriptions up or down based on changing needs, making the model particularly suitable for cloud infrastructure, where flexibility is crucial. In this approach, customers only pay for what they use, which helps reduce upfront capital expenditures and aligns better with operational expense (OpEx) budgeting models.

By contrast, traditional models fall short in cloud environments:

• Per socket licensing (Option A) ties software cost to hardware resources, such as CPU sockets. While it worked well in on-premises setups, it becomes irrelevant in virtualized or containerized cloud environments, where hardware abstraction makes socket counts meaningless.

• Perpetual licensing (Option B) allows customers to make a one-time purchase for indefinite use. Though it offers ownership, it lacks the agility and continuous update cycle required in dynamic cloud ecosystems. Moreover, support and upgrades often incur additional costs, making it less attractive in long-term scenarios.

• Site-based licensing (Option D) typically covers usage within a physical location, making it impractical for remote, distributed teams that access cloud resources from various locations or time zones. Its rigid structure is unsuitable for the on-demand, scalable nature of cloud platforms.

The subscription-based model also benefits software vendors. It supports ongoing revenue, encourages customer retention, and simplifies version management since all users are usually on the latest release.

In essence, the subscription model enables faster deployment, better cost predictability, seamless updates, and enhanced scalability, which are vital in today’s cloud-first IT strategies. Therefore, Option C is the most appropriate licensing model for cloud services.

Question 2:

A systems administrator is monitoring server performance. Which two metrics are the most essential for evaluating and diagnosing resource usage to maintain optimal system performance? (Choose two.)

A. Memory
B. Page file
C. Services
D. Application
E. CPU
F. Heartbeat

Correct Answers: A and E

Explanation:

To ensure that systems run efficiently and maintain responsiveness under varying workloads, administrators regularly monitor key performance indicators. The two most essential metrics for assessing overall server health and diagnosing resource bottlenecks are Memory (A) and CPU (E) utilization.

Monitoring memory usage is critical because it directly affects a system’s ability to load and execute applications. Insufficient available RAM can cause excessive paging or swapping, which severely slows down performance. Key counters such as “Available MBytes,” “Pages/sec,” and “Committed Bytes” help administrators determine whether memory is being overutilized or if there are memory leaks in specific applications. If memory resources are exhausted, even well-performing CPUs can’t compensate for the slowdown.

CPU usage represents how much processing power the system is consuming. A consistently high CPU load may signal that the system is overloaded, that background tasks are using too many resources, or that certain applications are not optimized. Important CPU counters include “% Processor Time” and “Processor Queue Length.” These indicators help assess whether the system is meeting processing demands or if additional capacity is needed.

Other options listed are secondary or irrelevant in standard performance monitoring:

• Page file (B): This is an overflow mechanism for when physical RAM is full. While it's useful for troubleshooting memory exhaustion, it's not a primary indicator unless memory usage is already a concern.
  
  

• Services (C) and Application (D): These refer more to what is running rather than how the system is performing. While important for diagnostics, they aren’t standalone performance metrics.
  
  

• Heartbeat (F): Typically used in failover clusters and high-availability systems to confirm whether systems are alive. It’s not a performance indicator in general use cases.

In summary, memory and CPU metrics are the foundation of performance analysis. They provide actionable insights into system stress, capacity planning, and application efficiency. Focusing on these metrics allows administrators to preemptively address issues and maintain system stability and performance. Thus, Options A and E are the most critical for performance monitoring.

Question 3:

A Linux user reports being unable to save large files to a directory, although smaller files were saved without issue earlier. As a support technician, which command would most effectively verify if the disk partition is full and thus causing the problem?

A. pvdisplay
B. mount
C. df -h
D. fdisk -l

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

When users are suddenly unable to save large files on a Linux system, one of the first considerations should be whether the storage space is exhausted. The df -h command is specifically designed for this scenario, allowing the technician to view disk usage and quickly assess which partitions may be full.

The df command (short for disk free) lists the amount of disk space available on the system. The -h flag modifies the output to be "human-readable," meaning sizes are shown in megabytes (MB), gigabytes (GB), or terabytes (TB), which makes it easier to interpret. The command reveals how much total space exists on each mounted filesystem, how much is used, and how much remains free. This makes it an essential first step in identifying whether a specific directory is located on a partition that has run out of space.

If the partition is full, any attempt to save a large file will fail—even if there appears to be sufficient space based on previous smaller files being written successfully. This is because smaller files may only need a few remaining blocks, while large files require more contiguous space. The df -h command enables the technician to pinpoint such space-related issues quickly and act accordingly.

Let’s briefly examine why the other choices are less effective for this problem:

• A. pvdisplay: This command shows information about physical volumes in a Logical Volume Manager (LVM) setup. While useful in assessing volume configuration, it does not provide real-time space usage data or show if a specific partition is full.

• B. mount: The mount command displays a list of all mounted file systems along with their mount points. However, it does not provide any data on how much space is being used or available on those file systems.

• D. fdisk -l: This command provides low-level information about disk partitions, such as their size and type. It’s valuable for initial disk setup or hardware diagnosis but doesn't help with real-time space monitoring.

Therefore, the best and most efficient command to check for space availability and confirm whether a full partition is causing file write failures is df -h.

Question 4:

Following a recent power outage, a single server repeatedly shuts down unexpectedly and loses its configuration, while all other servers operate normally. Upon reboot, the technician notices the affected server shows the wrong date and time. 

What are the MOST LIKELY reasons behind this issue? (Select two.)

A. Faulty power supply
B. CMOS battery failure
C. Missing OS updates
D. Defective LED panel
E. Absence of NTP configuration on other servers
F. Disabled time synchronization service on the server

Correct Answers: B and F

Explanation:

The behavior described—frequent unexpected shutdowns, lost configurations, and incorrect date/time after each reboot—is highly indicative of two specific problems: a failed CMOS battery and a disabled time synchronization service.

Let’s start with B. CMOS battery failure.
The CMOS battery is a small, embedded battery on the motherboard that powers the Real-Time Clock (RTC) and stores BIOS/UEFI settings, even when the server is completely powered off. If this battery fails or is depleted, the server cannot retain system time or BIOS settings between reboots. After a power outage, a dead CMOS battery will lead to incorrect date/time and a reset of configuration settings to their defaults. This explains why only one server exhibits issues while the others—presumably with functional batteries—do not.

Next, consider F. The time synchronization service is disabled.
Most modern systems use Network Time Protocol (NTP) or another time service to synchronize the system clock with accurate time sources. If this service is disabled, the server cannot correct the incorrect hardware clock upon startup, leading to continued use of the wrong time. Accurate time is crucial for many system functions, including logging, authentication (especially with Kerberos), SSL certificate validation, and application operations. A disabled time service, combined with a failed CMOS battery, creates a compounding issue that affects both usability and security.

Let’s now review why the other options are not suitable:

• A. Faulty power supply might explain instability, but not the incorrect time or configuration reset on reboot.

• C. OS updates would not cause time or BIOS setting resets and are unrelated to post-outage configuration loss.

• D. Malfunctioning LED panel is cosmetic and would not affect server functionality.

• E. NTP not configured on other servers is irrelevant since those servers are operating normally.

In conclusion, the two most plausible causes of the problem are a CMOS battery failure and a disabled time synchronization service, both of which are common, relatively easy to fix, and explain the symptoms completely.

Question 5:

A company has enabled full disk encryption across all its server drives to guard against data loss or theft. However, the organization also wants to ensure that data remains secure during use—after the server is booted and the drive is unlocked. 

As part of improving their data loss prevention (DLP) approach, which additional security control would best help maintain the confidentiality of the encrypted data while it’s in use?

A. Encrypt all network traffic
B. Implement Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) on all the servers with encrypted data
C. Block the servers from using an encrypted USB
D. Implement port security on the switches

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

While full disk encryption (FDE) is effective in safeguarding data at rest, it offers no protection once a server is powered on and the system decrypts the data for use. Once decrypted, any user who can access the server—even a malicious insider or someone who has stolen credentials—can read sensitive data unless further protections are applied. This is where Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) becomes a crucial next layer in a data loss prevention (DLP) framework.

Why MFA is critical:
MFA adds an extra step in the authentication process by requiring something the user knows (like a password) and something the user has (like a mobile authenticator or smartcard). This means even if credentials are compromised, unauthorized users cannot gain access without the second factor. For servers holding sensitive information, enforcing MFA ensures only verified personnel can interact with decrypted data during system runtime.

Additionally, MFA supports compliance with regulations such as HIPAA, PCI-DSS, and GDPR, all of which emphasize strong access controls and data protection. It also deters brute-force and credential theft attacks, making it a powerful measure to protect data in use.

Why the other options fall short:

• A. Encrypt all network traffic: Encrypting traffic protects data in transit, not while it is in use on the server. While essential for network security, it doesn’t prevent someone with system access from reading decrypted files.

• C. Block encrypted USBs: Although this may help limit data exfiltration, it’s a narrow solution that doesn't secure the server’s local data when in use.

• D. Implement port security: Port security protects against unauthorized network access but does not stop an attacker already logged into the system from viewing decrypted data.

In summary, encrypting disks is just the first layer. Protecting decrypted data while servers are active requires strong authentication mechanisms. Implementing MFA ensures that even if encryption is bypassed or credentials are stolen, unauthorized access is still blocked.

Question 6:

A system administrator is setting up a server to operate within a private internal network. To comply with private IP address standards outlined in RFC 1918, which of the following IP addresses is appropriate for use on a private LAN?

A. 11.251.196.241
B. 171.245.198.241
C. 172.16.19.241
D. 193.168.145.241

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

RFC 1918 defines a set of IP address ranges reserved for private use within local networks. These addresses are non-routable on the public internet, making them ideal for use within LANs, corporate networks, and home environments. The purpose is to reduce the consumption of public IP addresses and to improve internal network design and isolation.

RFC 1918 defines three private IP blocks:

• 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255 (Class A)

• 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255 (Class B)

• 192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255 (Class C)

Any IP addresses within these ranges are valid for internal routing and will typically be hidden from external networks through Network Address Translation (NAT).

Why Option C is correct:
172.16.19.241 falls within the 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 range, which is designated as a private Class B network in RFC 1918. This makes it valid for use on internal servers and other networked devices in private environments.

Why the other options are invalid:

• A. 11.251.196.241: This address belongs to the 11.0.0.0/8 block, which is not part of the private IP range. It's publicly routable and primarily assigned to the U.S. Department of Defense.
  
  

• B. 171.245.198.241: This address is from a public range, not defined by RFC 1918, and should not be used in private internal networks.
  
  

• D. 193.168.145.241: While it may resemble a private address like 192.168.x.x, the 193.x.x.x block is part of the public IP space and is not suitable for private network configurations.

When building a network in line with RFC 1918, administrators should always select addresses from the defined private blocks. Doing so ensures compatibility with network devices, NAT configurations, and firewall rules, while also supporting scalability and proper segmentation.

Thus, 172.16.19.241 is the only valid choice in this list according to RFC 1918 private address standards.

Question 7:

An administrator needs to perform pre-boot maintenance on a remote server located in a distant data center. This includes tasks such as accessing and modifying BIOS/UEFI settings, reinstalling the operating system, and diagnosing boot-level failures—actions that must be completed even when the operating system is not loaded. 

Which of the following technologies would best allow the administrator to carry out these tasks from a remote location?

A. IP KVM
B. VNC
C. Crash cart
D. RDP
E. SSH

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Bare-metal maintenance refers to managing or troubleshooting a system before the operating system has loaded, which includes tasks like editing BIOS or UEFI settings, reconfiguring boot devices, or reinstalling an operating system. These activities demand direct console-level access, making it essential to use a tool that functions independently of the OS.

The best solution for this scenario is IP KVM (Internet Protocol Keyboard, Video, Mouse). An IP KVM switch extends traditional KVM functionality by allowing administrators to remotely interact with a server at the hardware level via a network connection. This capability simulates the experience of physically plugging a monitor, keyboard, and mouse directly into the server.

An IP KVM allows the administrator to:

• View and interact with the BIOS/UEFI screen remotely.

• Mount virtual installation media for OS deployment.

• Perform low-level diagnostics or reboots even if the operating system has failed.

• Maintain functionality regardless of the system's software state.

This makes it especially valuable in unattended data centers or co-location facilities, where physical access is limited or delayed.

Why the other options are incorrect:

• B. VNC (Virtual Network Computing) provides remote desktop access but requires the operating system and network services to be fully operational. It cannot access pre-boot environments.

• C. Crash cart is a physical tool, typically consisting of a portable monitor, keyboard, and mouse connected directly to the server. It is useful for on-site support but not usable remotely.

• D. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) also depends on the OS being active and the remote desktop services running. It cannot function during boot-up or BIOS access.

• E. SSH is a remote command-line tool that likewise requires a functioning operating system and an active SSH daemon, which are unavailable during bare-metal troubleshooting.

In conclusion, IP KVM is the only option that offers true out-of-band remote console access, making it the correct and most secure choice for managing systems at the hardware level when the OS is inaccessible.

Question 8:

A systems technician is tasked with enhancing the availability of a virtual machine (VM) to ensure minimal service disruption in the event of a host system failure. 

What is the most effective strategy to achieve high availability for the VM?

A. Create a snapshot of the original VM
B. Clone the VM to another host
C. Switch the VM to dynamic disk allocation
D. Conduct a physical-to-virtual (P2V) conversion

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Ensuring high availability (HA) of virtual machines is a critical part of business continuity planning in virtualized environments. High availability refers to systems and services being continuously operational, even during failures, planned maintenance, or system crashes. The goal is to eliminate or minimize downtime and to automatically restore services without manual intervention.

The best approach to achieve this is to clone the virtual machine and distribute it across a high availability-enabled cluster. Cloning a VM creates a full, standalone copy of the original VM, including all configurations, installed applications, and data. Once cloned, the new instance can be deployed on a separate physical host within the cluster. This setup enables the use of hypervisor-based HA solutions such as VMware vSphere HA or Microsoft Hyper-V Failover Clustering, which can:

• Automatically restart the VM on another host if the original fails.

• Enable load balancing between hosts.

• Integrate with backup and disaster recovery plans.

This method is effective because it:

• Prepares a redundant VM instance ready to be activated at a moment’s notice.

• Requires minimal downtime and intervention.

• Fits seamlessly into automated recovery protocols offered by modern virtualization platforms.

Why the other options are incorrect:

• A. Snapshot of the original VM: Snapshots capture a moment-in-time image of the VM state but are not meant for HA. They do not provide failover functionality and are more suited for testing or rollback after updates.

• C. Dynamic disks: Changing the disk to dynamic only affects how storage is allocated (expanding as needed). It does not contribute to redundancy or failover, and therefore does not improve availability.

• D. P2V conversion: Physical-to-Virtual conversion transforms a physical machine into a VM. However, since the system is already virtualized, this step is irrelevant to the problem.

In conclusion, cloning the VM and setting it up in a redundant or clustered configuration is the most efficient and effective strategy to ensure high availability and fast recovery in case of host failure. This approach aligns well with enterprise-level best practices in virtualization and fault tolerance.

Question 9:

A Linux server administrator is troubleshooting a permissions issue involving a newly created user, Ann. She reports being unable to save files within her own home directory. Upon inspection, the administrator finds that the directory /home/Ann has the following permissions: dr-xr-xr--. 

Based on this, it’s clear Ann lacks write access to her own home directory. To resolve this problem while maintaining a secure environment that avoids over-permissioning others, which chmod command should the administrator apply?

A. chmod 777 /home/Ann
B. chmod 666 /home/Ann
C. chmod 711 /home/Ann
D. chmod 754 /home/Ann

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In Linux systems, directory permissions control the ability to view, create, modify, or execute contents within a directory. The permission string dr-xr-xr-- for Ann’s home directory can be broken down as follows:

• d: Indicates it is a directory.

• r-x (read and execute, or permission value 5) for the owner.

• r-x (read and execute, also 5) for the group.

• r-- (read-only, or value 4) for others.

Here, Ann is the owner of the directory, but she only has read and execute permissions, not write. This means she can list the contents and access files if she has execute rights, but she cannot create, delete, or modify any files within her own home directory — the root cause of the problem she reported.

The ideal fix is to modify the directory’s permissions so that Ann has full control (read, write, execute), while the group and others retain limited, non-destructive access.

Let’s evaluate each option:

• Option A: chmod 777 /home/Ann – This grants full read, write, and execute access to everyone (owner, group, and others). While this would resolve the issue for Ann, it creates a significant security vulnerability by allowing any user on the system to modify her files and folder structure.

• Option B: chmod 666 /home/Ann – Grants read and write access to all users, but removes execute permission, which is essential for entering or traversing directories in Linux. Without execute permission, the directory cannot be accessed even if read/write are enabled. This would not resolve the issue.

• Option C: chmod 711 /home/Ann – Grants execute-only to group and others, and read, write, and execute is still missing for Ann. This would still not allow her to save files unless write permission is explicitly set.

• Option D: chmod 754 /home/Ann – This is the correct and secure choice. It sets:
  
  

• 7 for owner (Ann): read, write, and execute (full control).

• 5 for group: read and execute (can view and access files, but not modify).

• 4 for others: read-only (least privilege).

This permission structure aligns with best security practices, offering Ann complete control over her directory, while restricting unnecessary write access for group members and others. This effectively resolves the issue without compromising system integrity or file confidentiality.

If you'd like, I can also help you learn how to convert between symbolic and numeric (octal) permission values.

Question 10:

A technician is configuring a RAID solution on a new server that will host a company’s critical database. The solution must provide fault tolerance and improve read performance. Budget constraints eliminate any solution that requires double parity or excessive disk usage. 

Which of the following RAID levels should the technician implement?

A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

This question assesses your understanding of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) levels, particularly in balancing fault tolerance, performance, and cost-efficiency—a common scenario in server administration.

The key requirements stated in the scenario are:

• Fault tolerance (to ensure the database remains operational in case of a disk failure),

• Improved read performance (for better database response times),

• Budget limitations, which rule out solutions that require high disk overhead or dual parity.

Let’s break down the RAID options:

• RAID 0 offers performance improvements by striping data across multiple drives but has no fault tolerance. A single disk failure results in total data loss. This eliminates A as a viable option.

• RAID 1 mirrors data across two disks, providing fault tolerance through redundancy. However, it offers no performance gain in write operations and requires double the storage (50% usable capacity), which may not be cost-effective under budget constraints.

• RAID 5, the correct answer, uses striping with distributed parity. This configuration requires a minimum of three disks, and one drive’s worth of space is used for parity. RAID 5 provides fault tolerance (can survive the failure of one disk), and it improves read performance by allowing parallel reads from multiple drives. It also offers better storage efficiency than RAID 1 or RAID 6, making it more suitable for organizations with limited budgets.

• RAID 6 is similar to RAID 5 but adds a second parity block, allowing for two disk failures. However, this additional fault tolerance comes at the cost of extra disk usage and slower write performance. The scenario specifies that solutions requiring double parity or excessive disk usage should be avoided, ruling out RAID 6.

Thus, RAID 5 is the optimal choice, striking the right balance between performance, redundancy, and storage efficiency for a cost-conscious deployment of a critical database server.

Let me know if you’d like additional questions focusing on hardware, virtualization, or troubleshooting from the SK0-005 exam!