Splunk SPLK-5001 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Which component within the Splunk Enterprise Security ecosystem is designed to execute prebuilt actions in response to events, both internally within Splunk and across integrated third-party systems?

A. Asset and Identity
B. Notable Event
C. Threat Intelligence
D. Adaptive Response

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The Adaptive Response feature in Splunk Enterprise Security is specifically designed to facilitate automated security operations by allowing users to configure and execute pre-defined actions based on certain triggers. These triggers are often notable events identified through correlation searches or other detection mechanisms within the Splunk environment. When specific conditions are met, Adaptive Response can carry out actions such as initiating a script, notifying a system administrator, quarantining a host, or communicating with third-party tools like firewalls or ticketing systems.

This functionality significantly enhances incident response capabilities. Instead of relying on manual intervention for every security alert, security teams can predefine actions that are automatically executed, reducing response time and the likelihood of human error. The real value lies in its ability to integrate with external security solutions—such as endpoint protection platforms or intrusion prevention systems—enabling a cohesive, real-time defense strategy.

Here’s why the other options are incorrect:

• A. Asset and Identity: This framework is useful for tracking user identities and organizational assets, aiding in understanding the context of events. However, it doesn't enable automated responses or integration with external systems.

• B. Notable Event: This represents significant events flagged during security monitoring but does not itself provide a mechanism for executing automated actions.

• C. Threat Intelligence: This refers to the enrichment of data using external intelligence sources such as known bad IPs or domains. It supports detection but does not perform any automated responsive action.

To summarize, Adaptive Response is the mechanism within Splunk ES that offers automated and integrated actions in reaction to identified threats, making it essential for improving both response speed and operational efficiency in modern security environments.

Question 2:

Which functionality in Splunk Enterprise Security enables organizations to align correlation search findings with cybersecurity frameworks like MITRE ATT&CK, CIS Controls, and the Cyber Kill Chain?

A. Annotations
B. Playbooks
C. Comments
D. Enrichments

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Annotations in Splunk Enterprise Security (ES) provide a structured way to link the results of correlation searches with established cybersecurity frameworks, such as MITRE ATT&CK, CIS Critical Security Controls, and the Lockheed Martin Cyber Kill Chain. This mapping functionality helps security teams better understand how specific events or behaviors identified by Splunk align with recognized phases or tactics used by attackers.

By annotating correlation search results, analysts can immediately see where an incident falls within a broader strategic model. This is invaluable for contextual analysis and reporting, as it allows teams to not only detect anomalies but also understand their significance relative to known attack vectors. For instance, if a correlation search identifies command-and-control communication, annotations can map it directly to the appropriate tactic in the MITRE ATT&CK framework. This structured mapping enhances incident prioritization and supports compliance and auditing efforts.

Now let’s examine why the other options are not correct:

• B. Playbooks: While playbooks are a critical feature for guiding and automating incident response steps, they don’t directly facilitate the mapping of search results to external frameworks.

• C. Comments: These are informal text notes that may be used to document observations or analyst input, but they lack the formal structure needed to map data to strategic frameworks.

• D. Enrichments: This function adds valuable context to events by incorporating additional data, such as user identity or geolocation, but it doesn’t support alignment with external security models.

In conclusion, Annotations are the only feature explicitly designed to connect Splunk ES detections with industry-standard frameworks, helping organizations make better-informed security decisions and build a clearer picture of threat activity in their environment.

Question 3:

What is the main advantage of utilizing the Common Information Model (CIM) in Splunk?

A. It simplifies the correlation of data across multiple sources.
B. It boosts the execution speed of searches on raw data.
C. It supports the application of complex machine learning techniques.
D. It autonomously identifies and mitigates cyber threats.

Answer: A

Explanation:

The Common Information Model (CIM) in Splunk provides a standardized framework that unifies the format and naming conventions of data, regardless of the original source. The key benefit of using CIM lies in its ability to facilitate data correlation across diverse data sources. This is especially important in environments where logs and event data are collected from a range of different tools, vendors, and platforms—such as firewalls, intrusion detection systems, and cloud services.

CIM ensures that similarly structured events are normalized into a common structure. This means that a field like “source IP address” or “username” will be consistently labeled, regardless of how it appears in the raw log data. This consistency is crucial for conducting searches, building dashboards, and setting up alerts because analysts don’t need to memorize each vendor’s unique field naming convention.

Option A is correct because CIM’s main purpose is to streamline the analysis process by enabling cross-source data correlation. For instance, a security analyst can correlate login attempts from a Windows event log with alerts from a firewall without manually transforming the data formats—CIM handles the mapping automatically.

Option B is incorrect because while CIM may organize data better, it does not directly enhance search performance. Query speed in Splunk depends more on how data is indexed and stored than on whether it conforms to CIM.

Option C is not accurate because CIM is not responsible for machine learning. Although normalized data can improve ML outcomes, the actual machine learning features come from Splunk’s Machine Learning Toolkit.

Option D is wrong because CIM doesn’t perform real-time threat detection or mitigation. It only structures the data. Threat detection and blocking are handled through apps like Splunk Enterprise Security or custom correlation rules.

Ultimately, CIM acts as a critical enabler for organizations to derive insights from disparate datasets, making it a foundational component in unified security and operational analysis.

Question 4:

In which cybersecurity framework are Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs) systematically categorized?

A. NIST 800-53
B. ISO 27000
C. CIS18
D. MITRE ATT&CK

Answer: D

Explanation:

Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs) are essential concepts used to describe how adversaries behave during a cyber attack. These elements are comprehensively cataloged within the MITRE ATT&CK framework. ATT&CK, which stands for Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Common Knowledge, is an open-source framework developed by the MITRE Corporation to document real-world attacker behaviors in a structured and actionable format.

• Tactics represent the high-level objectives of an attacker, such as gaining initial access, maintaining persistence, or exfiltrating data.

• Techniques are the specific methods used to achieve those tactics—for example, phishing for initial access or using PowerShell for lateral movement.

• Procedures refer to the implementation-level details, such as the exact malware or scripts an adversary employs to perform a technique.

MITRE ATT&CK provides security professionals with a shared language and detailed repository for describing and detecting adversary actions. This allows teams to better understand potential threats, map current detection capabilities, and identify gaps in defenses. Additionally, red and blue teams use the framework to simulate attacks and improve incident response processes.

Option D is correct because MITRE ATT&CK is the definitive source for categorizing TTPs. Its real-world foundation makes it an industry-standard reference for threat detection, threat intelligence, and security operations.

The other options are valuable cybersecurity frameworks but serve different purposes:

• A. NIST 800-53 focuses on defining security and privacy controls for federal information systems and is more about compliance and risk management than adversarial behavior.

• B. ISO 27000 refers to standards that define best practices for information security management systems (ISMS), emphasizing governance and policy.

• C. CIS18, or the CIS Critical Security Controls, lists prioritized best practices for securing IT systems but does not provide detailed adversary behavior models.

In conclusion, the MITRE ATT&CK framework stands out as the authoritative reference for classifying TTPs, enabling organizations to understand and defend against attacker behaviors effectively.

Question 5:

A threat hunter created a hypothesis that an attacker might use rundll32 for proxy execution and utilize Cobalt Strike for command and control. After reviewing logs such as Sysmon, netflow, IDS, and EDR, the hunter confidently concludes that Cobalt Strike is not present.

What is the most accurate description of the result of this threat hunt?

A. The threat hunt was successful because the hypothesis was not proven.
B. The threat hunt failed because the hypothesis was not proven.
C. The threat hunt failed because no malicious activity was identified.
D. The threat hunt was successful in providing strong evidence that the tactic and tool is not present in the environment.

Answer: D

Explanation:

In threat hunting, the process is hypothesis-driven—meaning hunters create theories about potential adversary behaviors and investigate the environment to prove or disprove them. Success is not solely measured by the discovery of malicious activity, but also by the rigor and depth of the investigation that either confirms or confidently denies the existence of specific threats.

In this case, the hunter hypothesized that an attacker could be using rundll32 and Cobalt Strike, a widely-used Command and Control (C2) framework. To evaluate this, the hunter performed thorough analysis using key telemetry sources including Sysmon logs (for process execution), netflow (for unusual outbound connections), IDS alerts (for signatures or behaviors linked to Cobalt Strike), and EDR logs (for endpoint-based behaviors).

After examining all these sources, the hunter concluded—with confidence—that there was no evidence of Cobalt Strike in the environment. This conclusion doesn’t mean the threat hunt failed—it actually means it succeeded in disproving the hypothesis based on comprehensive evidence.

Option A is misleading because it suggests that disproving the hypothesis alone indicates success. While technically not incorrect, it lacks the specificity found in Option D, which highlights the confidence in the conclusion and the clarity added to the security posture.

Option B is incorrect because disproving a hypothesis does not mean failure; it is an expected and valuable outcome of the threat hunting process.

Option C is inaccurate because the hunt’s goal wasn’t to find any malicious activity—it was targeted toward a specific tactic (rundll32) and tool (Cobalt Strike). The absence of that particular threat does not equal an overall failure.

Therefore, the correct choice is D, which acknowledges the real value of threat hunting: drawing confident conclusions, even if the result is the absence of a specific threat.

Question 6:

An analyst detects that a server is sending out a very large amount of data to a particular external system, but there’s no corresponding increase in inbound traffic.

What kind of malicious activity is most likely occurring?

A. Data exfiltration
B. Network reconnaissance
C. Data infiltration
D. Lateral movement

Answer: A

Explanation:

A server that is suddenly sending unusually large volumes of data to an external system, with no increase in inbound traffic, is behaving abnormally. This pattern—high outbound traffic with low or unchanged inbound traffic—is a classic indicator of data exfiltration.

Data exfiltration is when threat actors remove sensitive, proprietary, or classified data from a network, often without detection. It's the final stage of many cyberattacks, especially those involving espionage, financial fraud, or intellectual property theft. Attackers might use malware, remote access tools, or compromised credentials to locate valuable data and transfer it out discreetly.

The behavior described here—gigabytes of outbound traffic to a specific system—is consistent with an attacker dumping stolen data. The lack of incoming traffic further supports this conclusion because other activities like scanning, infiltration, or lateral movement would typically produce bidirectional traffic.

Option B (Network reconnaissance) would generally involve scans or probes (like port scanning or banner grabbing), resulting in both outgoing and incoming traffic—often across a wide range of IPs and ports, not a single destination.

Option C (Data infiltration) involves incoming malicious payloads, such as malware or exploit kits. It would typically show a rise in incoming traffic—not outgoing—so this doesn’t fit the scenario.

Option D (Lateral movement) refers to an attacker pivoting between internal systems, typically using techniques like pass-the-hash or exploiting Windows Admin Shares. This would result in internal traffic between hosts, not high-volume traffic directed outside the network.

Given these observations, Option A is clearly the best fit, as it aligns directly with the described symptoms.

Question 7:

During which stage of the Continuous Monitoring process are recommendations for enhancements typically formulated?

A. Define and Predict
B. Establish and Architect
C. Analyze and Report
D. Implement and Collect

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Continuous Monitoring cycle is a critical framework in security and systems management, aimed at consistently assessing and enhancing operations through real-time or scheduled evaluations. This cycle is composed of several key phases that each serve a distinct purpose, from setting initial objectives to collecting and analyzing data for informed decision-making.

The Analyze and Report phase is where meaningful insights are derived from the data gathered during earlier stages. It is in this stage that the organization evaluates trends, detects anomalies, and identifies patterns that may signify risks, inefficiencies, or opportunities for optimization. After this in-depth analysis, results are documented in reports that form the basis for strategic decisions, corrective actions, or system improvements. This is why suggestions and enhancements are typically made at this point—the analysis provides clear evidence of what is working and what isn’t.

Let’s examine the other options:

• A. Define and Predict focuses on setting goals, key performance indicators (KPIs), and anticipating outcomes. While important, this phase is about preparation and forecasting, not evaluation or improvement.

• B. Establish and Architect involves building the foundational infrastructure, systems, and frameworks needed to enable monitoring. It’s a technical and design-oriented phase and doesn’t include analysis or feedback.

• D. Implement and Collect centers around putting monitoring tools into action and gathering data. This is the data acquisition phase, but the actual interpretation and subsequent recommendations come later.

In contrast, C. Analyze and Report synthesizes all prior efforts and provides the clearest opportunity for identifying gaps, recommending changes, and optimizing performance. By converting raw data into actionable intelligence, this phase directly supports continuous improvement. Therefore, this stage is correctly identified as the point where enhancements and suggestions are typically made based on concrete findings.

Question 8:

An analyst wants to verify whether all potential data sources in the organization are being effectively used by Splunk and Enterprise Security. 

Which tool should she recommend to evaluate the data and its potential for security applications?

A. Splunk ITSI
B. Splunk Security Essentials
C. Splunk SOAR
D. Splunk Intelligence Management

Answer: B

Explanation:

When trying to determine if all available data sources are being fully utilized for security purposes within Splunk and Enterprise Security, the most appropriate tool to recommend is Splunk Security Essentials. This free app helps security professionals explore and understand how existing data sources can be applied to various security use cases. It offers prebuilt content, use case libraries, and visualizations that align specific data types with potential threat detection and compliance functions.

Splunk Security Essentials is particularly useful for analysts who are unfamiliar with how different logs or data sets—such as firewall logs, authentication records, or DNS queries—can contribute to security visibility. It provides guidance on what kind of data is needed for certain use cases and whether that data is already being ingested. Additionally, it includes “data availability checks,” which help determine whether your environment is receiving the necessary inputs for selected use cases.

Now let’s look at why the other options are less suitable:

• A. Splunk ITSI (IT Service Intelligence) is geared toward IT operations rather than cybersecurity. It focuses on service monitoring, performance, and infrastructure health—not on exploring security use cases or assessing data sources for security relevance.

• C. Splunk SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) is a powerful platform for automating incident response processes. However, its core function is executing playbooks and response workflows—not evaluating whether all potential data sources are being leveraged.

• D. Splunk Intelligence Management is designed to aggregate and manage threat intelligence feeds, focusing on enriching alerts and investigations. It doesn’t assess internal data collection or guide organizations in identifying underutilized internal data.

In conclusion, Splunk Security Essentials is the ideal choice for a security analyst aiming to understand data coverage and improve use of existing sources. It bridges the gap between available data and actionable use cases, making it a vital tool in strengthening security operations.

Question 9:

What is the primary reason for further investigation when an executable is launched from the C:\Windows\Temp directory?

A. Because temp directories are not assigned to a specific user, making process ownership unclear.
B. Because temp directories are set to prevent execution of files stored within them.
C. Because temp directories contain memory-related files that malware can exploit.
D. Because temp directories are globally writable, making them ideal for attackers to drop and run malicious code.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The C:\Windows\Temp directory is a temporary storage location used by both the operating system and applications to handle short-term file needs. However, this directory poses significant security risks because it is often world writable, meaning any user or process with the right privileges can create, modify, or execute files within it.

This lack of strict file permissions makes the Temp directory an attractive target for cyber attackers. By dropping malware into a location that doesn't require bypassing tight system protections, an attacker can stage and execute malicious payloads without drawing immediate attention. Since antivirus or security software may overlook activities in this common directory—assuming its contents are harmless or transient—malicious files might evade detection.

Option A is misleading. While temp directories may have flexible ownership models, security tools can still trace process ownership through logs and process monitoring. Option B is incorrect because temp directories are not inherently non-executable unless a system administrator has explicitly enforced such restrictions using access control or execution policies. Option C is factually inaccurate, as system paging files (like pagefile.sys) and virtual memory mechanisms do not reside in the Temp folder and are not relevant to file execution from there.

Therefore, what makes this behavior suspicious is the combination of easy write access and the ability to run executables—a perfect storm for attackers to stage their operations. Any executable found running from this directory should immediately prompt investigation, as it may be part of a broader attack or malware deployment strategy.

Question 10:

How can a security analyst view both threat objects throughout the environment and the sequence of risk events related to a specific Risk Object in Incident Review?

A. By executing the Risk Analysis Adaptive Response action from a Notable Event.
B. Through a workflow action linked to the Risk Investigation dashboard.
C. Using the Risk Analysis dashboard under the Security Intelligence section.
D. By selecting the risk event count to open the Risk Event Timeline.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

To gain insight into both the environment-wide presence of threat objects and the chronological order of risk events tied to a particular Risk Object, the most effective method is accessing the Risk Event Timeline. This feature is triggered by clicking on the risk event count associated with the object in the Incident Review section of the platform.

The Risk Event Timeline offers a comprehensive visual history of all security-related activities linked to a specific Risk Object, such as an IP address, host, or user. By displaying events in chronological order, it helps analysts quickly recognize patterns, escalation paths, and the progression of malicious activity. This aids in determining how the object evolved into a threat and what assets may be affected.

Option A, running the Risk Analysis Adaptive Response action, is useful for initiating an investigation or integrating automation into the response process, but it doesn't directly offer a visual, event-by-event timeline. Option B, accessing the Risk Investigation dashboard, is better suited for examining overall risk posture and investigation metrics, rather than chronological analysis. Option C, the Risk Analysis dashboard under the Security Intelligence tab, gives a high-level view of risk scores and activity, but lacks the granular event sequencing found in the timeline.

Ultimately, clicking on the risk event count to open the Risk Event Timeline provides both a targeted and time-based perspective of threat behaviors. This view empowers analysts to assess impact, trace the origin of threats, and take more informed actions to contain and remediate incidents. It is an essential tool for effective threat investigation and response within security operations workflows.