Originally posted by: MarcVenice
One thing I never understood is this. If a q6600 can run at 3.0ghz without any extra vcore, then why doesn't Intel release it with higher stock clock speeds, like 2.6-2.7ghz? And this especially true for AMD, they NEED more performance, if some of their CPU's can run at 3.5ghz they can bin some that run at 2.8-3.0ghz, so they can compete with intel?
For Intel it 100% has everything to do with market segmentation and ASP protection. If the 2.40GHz Q6600 can compete with AMD's upper-end quad-core for performance (and best it for power consumption) then there is no benefit to Intel or Intel's shareholders in releasing a 3GHz chip to replace the Q6600.
For AMD the primary reason you don't see them bin-out 3.5GHz chips for sale as 3GHz SKU's is that the TDP for those chips at 3GHz would be fodder for Intel's marketing machine.
Sure there may be 1,000 to 10,000 people around the planet who are geared up to cool down a 250W processor, and those folks will take a 140W TDP and overclock the bejesus out of it and post their 3.5GHz overclock on the web but that doesn't mean AMD can put them on the market and expect 100,000 people to do well attempting the same.
This goes for Intel as well, which is why you don't see 200W 4GHz yorkies on the market.
Originally posted by: bryanW1995
with amd's 45nm low-k and using exotic materials (germanium?) it might also be possible for it to handle higher voltages than penryns.
While AMD does use SiGe for stress management in the channel, the materials of choice for AMD are no more exotic than Intel's choice of materials...and certainly the argument could be made that Intel's choice is more exotic (HK/MG).
edit start: adding links for proof of SiGe use (thanks to poster
inf64 at aceshardware)...specifically see the page 6 graph in upper-righthand corner of this AMD document:
http://www.amd.com/us-en/asset...ress_Presentation2.pdf
As well as answer 3 (A3) in this AMD Q&A document:
http://www.amd.com/us-en/asset...MD__45nm_Press_Q-A.pdf
edit end
The ability to handle voltages depends on many things, but first and foremost it is the
electric field (voltage/distance) that defines the problem. So critical dimensions need to be known.
If Intel's M1 pitch is 10% smaller than AMD's then the electric field placed on the M1 dielectric will be 10% higher in the Intel chip if both the Intel and AMD chips are operating at the same voltage.
Likewise if the contact-to-gate distance is smaller for Intel then the electric field on the dielectric material between the contacts and the gate will be placed under higher electric field stress if the same voltage is used on the Intel chip and the AMD chip. Same is true for the gate oxide, and every other insulating material and distance between electrodes thruout the IC.
So the other question is are the dielectic materials the same or can one company's dielectric material of choice (and integration history) be superior to the other's. This we cannot answer without access to their internal reliability and lifetime data.
If both companies were to use exactly the same materials choice and have identical design rules they could still end up with vastly different reliability and lifetimes when operating at the same voltage due to process integration differences that can enhance or deteriorate the material's electrical properties.
This is one of the many reasons it takes 4 yrs to develop a process node for manufacturing. Hitting the design rules takes maybe 1 yr, hitting those dimensions with acceptable time-zero yields takes another 1-2 yrs, making the parts such that they have time-zero yield
and can be expected to still function in 10yrs takes another year of development.