Big Bang vs Creationism

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CycloWizard

Lifer
Sep 10, 2001
12,348
1
81
Originally posted by: jackschmittusa
CycloWizard

I did fall into the trap of assuming that the 6k was a reference to the Biblical calculation.

Yes, there are infinite possible explanations of how the universe came into being. But this is also a problem. Since, in a single universe, there can only be one accurate explanation of how it came to be, not all possibilities are of equal value.

Your later explanation for the OP, including:
The real point here is that science cannot answer every question and, therefore, it is absurd to ridicule someone who disagrees with you on one of these questions because you believe that one explanation is more plausible than the other.
, deserves addressing.

It is not possible to teach/learn an infinite number of possibilities, nor is it likely that picking any random one to research will yield anything of value. It is therefore necessary to look at the probability that any of these possibilities are accurate. That probability is gaged by scientific method. This is not done by examining every probability, but by requiring evidence to support a theory, which is then examined. If there is no evidence presented to support a theory, it falls into the realm of speculation.

I do look askance at those insist that the 6k age of the universe is absolutely true, but put forth no valid evidence. While I agree that they may have every right to believe that, I would certainly question their judgment, and I definitely draw the line when they insist that others be instructed in their belief.
The scientific method can only suggest which models might be correct, generally initiating the process with a model with as few parameters as possible. However, if this model can't answer all of the questions that might be asked of it, then the model must be expanded or another model adopted. For many people, the big bang theory in and of itself is unsatisfactory. It does not explain where energy comes from, since it assumes that energy exists. Thus, if someone would like to ask the question "where does energy come from?" the Big Bang theory fails to tell them everything they want to know, so they must expand the model or find a different model. This is appealing to so many because they intuit that energy must have come from somewhere at some point, which may or may not be true. But the bottom line is that, for any scientific reason, where the energy came from doesn't matter at all, nor can science even tell us. I agree that people should not be presented with only one possibility, which is one of the reasons I protest when those presenting alternative ideas are demonized so vehemently by either side. In the marketplace of ideas, if one idea answers all fo a person's questions, they should be able to choose it for themselves.
 

Cerpin Taxt

Lifer
Feb 23, 2005
11,940
542
126
Originally posted by: CycloWizard

I'm not going to disagree with you there. I'm just saying that one could formulate Creationism in a manner that is in agreement with science, not that anyone has actually done so.
Omphalism has never been "in agreement" with science, because it is unfalsifiable.
 

palehorse

Lifer
Dec 21, 2005
11,521
0
76
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: palehorse74
THAT is where you're wrong - or being intentionally irrational. I'm guessing both.

/thread
I'll try to make this as simple as possible. Tell me if the following is true:

1+1+1+1+1=5
0+2+1+1+1=5

If it is true, then my previous statement must also be true. The cumulative sum of this sequence could represent the state of the universe, where each term is an arbitrary time step. The final state of the sequence is the same in either case, even though the first term is different. So please, tell me how I can prove something mathematically while behaving "irrationally."
Wow. Never mind! That post explains everything... but I didn't realize that they give out PhD's in Stand-up Philosophy!

Your thesis still need A LOT of work... good luck!

/thread
Stay in school. :roll:
Which of those integers (variables) represents "God" in your OP?

I'm just curious to see which value for "god" you decided to pull out of your arse!

Oh ya, that's right! You've included an unfalsifiable concept - one that is completely void of "raw data" to back it up - in those "data sets" you presented in the OP! WOOPS!

Trust me skippy, you haven't lost anyone here. This theory of yours, on decision-making, is simply wrong - in THIS case. (Maybe it would hold true for other decisions... who knows?!)

It's OK to fail man! Hell, most scientists spend their entire lives doing just that! You'll be lucky to succeed once, in terms of innovation, during your entire lifetime!

So good luck... and may the Force be with you!
 

WHAMPOM

Diamond Member
Feb 28, 2006
7,628
183
106
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
I'll pose a question here that all of you know the answer to, but I'll pose it just to make you think about it a little.

Consider the following two hypotheses:
1. The universe was formed from the Big Bang billions of years ago. Life formed spontaneously and evolved to what we know today.

2. The universe was formed 6,000 years ago. Every bit of matter was positioned just so such that it matched the position and velocity of the Big Bang model (i.e. its initial condition exactly matches that predicted by Big Bang theory). Life was formed and microevolution occurred.

Can anyone suggest a scientific method to disprove either hypothesis?

NO, they would be identical universes.
edit: My simple answer to the question, lost in the forest of over-think.
 

Rainsford

Lifer
Apr 25, 2001
17,515
0
0
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
...
The scientific method can only suggest which models might be correct, generally initiating the process with a model with as few parameters as possible. However, if this model can't answer all of the questions that might be asked of it, then the model must be expanded or another model adopted. For many people, the big bang theory in and of itself is unsatisfactory. It does not explain where energy comes from, since it assumes that energy exists. Thus, if someone would like to ask the question "where does energy come from?" the Big Bang theory fails to tell them everything they want to know, so they must expand the model or find a different model. This is appealing to so many because they intuit that energy must have come from somewhere at some point, which may or may not be true. But the bottom line is that, for any scientific reason, where the energy came from doesn't matter at all, nor can science even tell us. I agree that people should not be presented with only one possibility, which is one of the reasons I protest when those presenting alternative ideas are demonized so vehemently by either side. In the marketplace of ideas, if one idea answers all fo a person's questions, they should be able to choose it for themselves.

You have your terminology wrong, ideas aren't "demonized", they are dismissed because they don't provide any new answers to open question. In fact, in many cases the new theory tries to re-answer some already answered questions, and does so poorly. The phrase "marketplace of ideas" is actually quite appropriate, the ideas (all the ideas) exist in a free market, where people can choose (or not choose) them based on a number of factors.

I think most of us are in agreement here, the problem seems to be when we discuss those factors. Religious folks think the factor should be the NUMBER of questions answered and how complete those answers are, while the real science folks are more concerned with how WELL the theory answers any questions. I will be the first to admit that the Big Bang theory leave some unanswered questions, but it does a great (and verifiable) job answering many others...and no theory is set in stone, I'm confident that as our understanding grows, the Big Bang theory will change to incorporate new answers and fill in the blanks in our knowledge. I see no reason to adopt an "alternative" theory that fills those blanks with "God did it" simply to have an answer.

Really, that is THE fundamental debate here, and if you wonder why sometimes tempers flare a little, it's because the "alternative" viewpoint is so unscientific. At every point in human history, we've had the group of things we understood (let's call it 'A') and the group of things we do not understand (let's call it '?') Over time, what's in those groups has change...but the one constant has ALWAYS been that mystics are forever trying to "explain" ? with "God did it", while the scientists are trying to move stuff from ? into A. And you know what? Looking back through time, the mystics always end up looking like idiots...because "God did it" never really ends up being the explanation, the fact that we don't understand something NOW doesn't mean it's unknowable and we have to surrender to ignorance.

The discussion here seems largely based on a major misunderstanding, that we have to explain everything right this very second, that unknowns or uncertainty is unacceptable and if no ready scientific explanation can be found, well then we need to consult the voodoo priests. That solution isn't an alternative idea, it's an alternative TO ideas...a statement that we think real science has gone as far as it can go and we just need to construct a friend in the sky to explain the rest. And honestly, if you have any respect for the scientific method at all, how can that idea not be completely offensive?
 

Rainsford

Lifer
Apr 25, 2001
17,515
0
0
Originally posted by: WHAMPOM
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
I'll pose a question here that all of you know the answer to, but I'll pose it just to make you think about it a little.

Consider the following two hypotheses:
1. The universe was formed from the Big Bang billions of years ago. Life formed spontaneously and evolved to what we know today.

2. The universe was formed 6,000 years ago. Every bit of matter was positioned just so such that it matched the position and velocity of the Big Bang model (i.e. its initial condition exactly matches that predicted by Big Bang theory). Life was formed and microevolution occurred.

Can anyone suggest a scientific method to disprove either hypothesis?

NO, they would be identical universes.

Does it really matter? A hypothesis that's not scientifically testable can't possibly be science. And if you can't tell the difference between a universe that evolved from the Big Bang and a universe constructed as though to APPEAR to have done so, what difference does it make what you BELIEVE? Exploring the universe is a worthwhile goal even if we're all being deluded by an overly clever creator...because reality is reality, if there is no way to tell the ruse from reality? In other words, if the entire universe was created to SIMULATE the effects of a Big Bang, didn't the Big Bang actually happen? After all, all our scientific tests tell us it did, and that the Earth is well over 6,000 years old. An omnipotent creator can't be scientifically verified, so why worry about the possibility?
 

WHAMPOM

Diamond Member
Feb 28, 2006
7,628
183
106
Originally posted by: Rainsford
Originally posted by: WHAMPOM
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
I'll pose a question here that all of you know the answer to, but I'll pose it just to make you think about it a little.

Consider the following two hypotheses:
1. The universe was formed from the Big Bang billions of years ago. Life formed spontaneously and evolved to what we know today.

2. The universe was formed 6,000 years ago. Every bit of matter was positioned just so such that it matched the position and velocity of the Big Bang model (i.e. its initial condition exactly matches that predicted by Big Bang theory). Life was formed and microevolution occurred.

Can anyone suggest a scientific method to disprove either hypothesis?

NO, they would be identical universes.

Does it really matter? A hypothesis that's not scientifically testable can't possibly be science. And if you can't tell the difference between a universe that evolved from the Big Bang and a universe constructed as though to APPEAR to have done so, what difference does it make what you BELIEVE? Exploring the universe is a worthwhile goal even if we're all being deluded by an overly clever creator...because reality is reality, if there is no way to tell the ruse from reality? In other words, if the entire universe was created to SIMULATE the effects of a Big Bang, didn't the Big Bang actually happen? After all, all our scientific tests tell us it did, and that the Earth is well over 6,000 years old. An omnipotent creator can't be scientifically verified, so why worry about the possibility?

You bring up the question: is reality real or a dream? Answer: As real as your perceptions, just stub your toe. In universe #1 or #2 it still hurts.
 

spittledip

Diamond Member
Apr 23, 2005
4,480
1
81
Originally posted by: Jeff7
Except that Creationism requires somehow the existence of an infinitely complex creator.
Scenario 1: Infinitely complex creator + finitely complex Universe
Scenario 2: No creator + finitely complex Universe.

Scenario 2 is less complex, by 8. Quite a difference.


Concerning the OP's two scenarios, then I guess the issue would be, if this creator made the Universe so as to apparently disguise his own existence, why does it matter if he's there or not? If it was deliberately made so that there is a lot of evidence of the Big Bang, well, why do that? A "test?" A bad sense of humor?

Stephen Hawking put the question of "before" the Big Bang in the sense of, what happens if you go to the South Pole and try to go south? There is nothing south, just as there was no "before" the Big Bang. Space, energy, and time all came from that point source. Causality as we know it didn't exist. Space as we describe it didn't exist. Then again, as Hawking says, because of this, nothing that happened "before" the Big Bang could possibly have any effect on the inside of the singularity and then expanding Universe, and thus wouldn't really matter anyway.

[/quote]

The reason why believing in a Creator is much more simple is b/c it provides a rational explanation for the beginning of matter/time. Other responses to this problem (Such as
Hawking's attempt) attempt to explain the concept of "beginning" away by focusing on perception analogies. However, according to the science we have now, matter needs a beginning.

I assume people will protest the rationality that believing that something/someone outside of time/matter created/caused time/matter to exist. However, until someone who does not believe in a cause outside of time/matter has an explanation for this existance, I am not sure it is fair to call someone else's beliefs in this area irrational.
 

spittledip

Diamond Member
Apr 23, 2005
4,480
1
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Originally posted by: jackschmittusa
Well, the earliest forms of writing that we know of date back to the times of Noah (as figured in the 6k model). Since he would have been the greatest hero on the planet, whose singular efforts saved all of mankind, I find it odd that these early records make no mention of him. Assuming he and his clan were the sole survivors of the flood, all of the people of the Earth would be direct descendants of his and likely to know his story. Everyone would also know his god and understand the power of this god, but there was no mention of this god or any great monuments built to either Noah or his god.

Again, according to the 6k model, Moses came along a little more than 500 years after Noah had died. And yet, the Earth had already been repopulated by then. I am not going to try doing the math, but I am sure it would prove that it was impossible to have the size and number of populations in various places described in the Bible alone. If you also factor in populations that we also know existed at the time, even though not mentioned on the Bible, I am sure there is no possibility of any rational explanation how so many came from Noah's family in so short a period of time. Would actually doing the numbers be proof?

6k model aside as I do not prescribe to that model: the flood is a very common myth from many cultures around the world.
 

spittledip

Diamond Member
Apr 23, 2005
4,480
1
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Originally posted by: Vic

Actually, the universe came into existence at the time that I first became sentient, which was about in my 2nd or 3rd year, and the size and scope of the entire universe is confined to the limitations of my senses.
I try to avoid mentioning this because I've found that some people take offense at it.

Hehehehe
 

spittledip

Diamond Member
Apr 23, 2005
4,480
1
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Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: Moonbeam
But if it's philosophical or scientific, either one, why do people giggle? Hehe! It seems that no matter what people think, they become wedded to their ideas and invest emotions in them. This points out to me that ideas meet emotional needs, needs that are unconscious.

This is, I think, far more dangerous in the scientist than in the religious person. A person of faith chooses to have faith whereas the scientist is rational and unbiased in all but his unconscious life where prejudice runs unscientifically rampant. Nothing is more dangerous than a fanatic that thinks he's objective and has objectivity as his religion.
I couldn't agree more. This is exactly why I created this thread.

They are about equally as dangerous I would say... but it is important to point this idea out as those who feel that they are completely objective and non-biased in their pursuit of knowledge will never see their biases and inobjectivity b/c they d not believe they have them. circular.
 

spittledip

Diamond Member
Apr 23, 2005
4,480
1
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Originally posted by: Vic
All of you repeat after me: TIME IS RELATIVE. And that's just Einstein (edit: who rejected the Big Bang theory for most of this life, FYI /edit). You start getting into quantum theory and time doesn't really exist at all except as changing states of matter-emergy within space.

Actually, it would be more accurate to state that the perception/experience of time is relative. Time itself is not relative EXCEPT to the beginning of matter. The 2 are intertwined. So, for our existence, time itself is not relative, but our experience of it is. Time would only be relative to us if we existed before the beginning of matter.

 

CycloWizard

Lifer
Sep 10, 2001
12,348
1
81
Originally posted by: palehorse74
Which of those integers (variables) represents "God" in your OP?

I'm just curious to see which value for "god" you decided to pull out of your arse!

Oh ya, that's right! You've included an unfalsifiable concept - one that is completely void of "raw data" to back it up - in those "data sets" you presented in the OP! WOOPS!

Trust me skippy, you haven't lost anyone here. This theory of yours, on decision-making, is simply wrong - in THIS case. (Maybe it would hold true for other decisions... who knows?!)

It's OK to fail man! Hell, most scientists spend their entire lives doing just that! You'll be lucky to succeed once, in terms of innovation, during your entire lifetime!

So good luck... and may the Force be with you!
Oh well. You can lead a palehorse to water...
 

CycloWizard

Lifer
Sep 10, 2001
12,348
1
81
Originally posted by: WHAMPOM
NO, they would be identical universes.
edit: My simple answer to the question, lost in the forest of over-think.
:thumbsup: At least a few people figured out the obviousness of the solution right away, so I know I didn't totally botch the OP.
 

CycloWizard

Lifer
Sep 10, 2001
12,348
1
81
Originally posted by: Rainsford
You have your terminology wrong, ideas aren't "demonized", they are dismissed because they don't provide any new answers to open question. In fact, in many cases the new theory tries to re-answer some already answered questions, and does so poorly. The phrase "marketplace of ideas" is actually quite appropriate, the ideas (all the ideas) exist in a free market, where people can choose (or not choose) them based on a number of factors.
I was trying to say that the people subscribing to those ideas are demonized. The amount of hatred directed in their direction on this forum is amazing. The hatred is what I'm trying to rail against here. If we could only understand where the other is coming from, we could leave it at apathy at worst and achieve some appreciation for the other at best. I read in the St. Louis news today that some guys ran up and started shooting at a family leaving the funeral of their kid today, killing another member of the kid's family. I personally cannot comprehend that kind of hatred - a blatant disregard for common decency, respect for any form of decency. I'm not saying that this shooting was related to the discussion at hand, but the amount of hatred going around based on absolutely ridiculous things like this just blows my mind, so I am trying simply to show that we are all a lot more similar than we think. The details don't matter to me, but the idea of a common ground is of the utmost importance so that we can have at least some basic respect for each other. If we cannot achieve that basic respect, then all is lost and debate becomes absolutely meaningless.
I think most of us are in agreement here, the problem seems to be when we discuss those factors. Religious folks think the factor should be the NUMBER of questions answered and how complete those answers are, while the real science folks are more concerned with how WELL the theory answers any questions. I will be the first to admit that the Big Bang theory leave some unanswered questions, but it does a great (and verifiable) job answering many others...and no theory is set in stone, I'm confident that as our understanding grows, the Big Bang theory will change to incorporate new answers and fill in the blanks in our knowledge. I see no reason to adopt an "alternative" theory that fills those blanks with "God did it" simply to have an answer.

Really, that is THE fundamental debate here, and if you wonder why sometimes tempers flare a little, it's because the "alternative" viewpoint is so unscientific. At every point in human history, we've had the group of things we understood (let's call it 'A') and the group of things we do not understand (let's call it '?') Over time, what's in those groups has change...but the one constant has ALWAYS been that mystics are forever trying to "explain" ? with "God did it", while the scientists are trying to move stuff from ? into A. And you know what? Looking back through time, the mystics always end up looking like idiots...because "God did it" never really ends up being the explanation, the fact that we don't understand something NOW doesn't mean it's unknowable and we have to surrender to ignorance.

The discussion here seems largely based on a major misunderstanding, that we have to explain everything right this very second, that unknowns or uncertainty is unacceptable and if no ready scientific explanation can be found, well then we need to consult the voodoo priests. That solution isn't an alternative idea, it's an alternative TO ideas...a statement that we think real science has gone as far as it can go and we just need to construct a friend in the sky to explain the rest. And honestly, if you have any respect for the scientific method at all, how can that idea not be completely offensive?
The problem is that you (and many others) somehow see the religious and scientific answers as answering questions differently. I tried to demonstrate in the OP how they are not necessarily different at all. In fact, they can be very much consistent and in harmony.
 

CycloWizard

Lifer
Sep 10, 2001
12,348
1
81
Originally posted by: spittledip
Actually, it would be more accurate to state that the perception/experience of time is relative. Time itself is not relative EXCEPT to the beginning of matter. The 2 are intertwined. So, for our existence, time itself is not relative, but our experience of it is. Time would only be relative to us if we existed before the beginning of matter.
It has been demonstrated that time itself is actually relative. Hawking gives several examples of this (and it was actually just discussed in this thread in HT). If I have two identical atomic clocks, put one on a very fast plane, then the other on the ground, fly the fast plane around for a while, and bring the clocks back together, the two clocks will indicate different times. This is a consequence of the theory of relativity and the fact that the speed of light is independent of the observer's location or velocity.
 

spittledip

Diamond Member
Apr 23, 2005
4,480
1
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Is it possible that something affects the clocks themselves? That would seem more likely. I have heard this and I guess I didn't quite understand it so i would have to read some more on it to see if I can get a better grasp of it.

And how does this idea effect matter as to its beginnings?

edit: I was also curious as to why it is still just a theory if there have been tests that have proven it? Or is proven too strong of a word?
 

shira

Diamond Member
Jan 12, 2005
9,500
6
81
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: shira
But, again, you implicitly stating that God + theory = theory. That is the flaw in your argument. If right-hand side of your equation is a theory, the left-hand side is most certainly NOT the same theory (and not a theory at all), since there are "terms on the left that can't be filled in. You have undefined "quantities" that cannot be resolved. You have no way of setting up a "value" for "God."
I thought you were an engineer and so this would appeal to you, but apparently you don't grasp the concept of a model. If I change around the model slightly, using something like the diffusion equation, which governs conservation of energy/mass/momentum,
du/dt=D*d^2u/dx^2,
then D is a parameter characterizing something about how viscous a material is, how a material diffuses, how a material conducts heat, or several other possibilites. The model tells us nothing about the value of this parameter, so it is determined experimentally, often using a different model (e.g. Einstein's equation for the viscosity of a dilute suspension of particles). If I modify the conservation equation to include some source term (like a reaction rate or heat source), then it has the form du/dt=D*d^2u/dx^2+k*u. Both of these models can equally describe a nonreactive system, though the latter is more general and applies to a broader class of systems. Abstracting this idea beyond the realm of such simple differential equations, the parameter 'k' can become very complex, even containing imaginary components (i.e. it is not necessarily a real-valued parameter). So, why does adding this k*u term make the second model invalid?
Furthermore, as I wrote earlier, the addition of God answers nothing in the observed data, and it is thus illegitimiate to add the "God term," meaning that what you have proposed is not a valid theory.

Similarly, in your two equations, if A = ax expressed a valid theory, than B = ax + bi does NOT express the same theory. Only if the bi term addresses observed or expected data would the second expression be a valid theory (and in that case, A = ax would be invalid).

You cannot get around this. You are literally comparing a theory with a non-theory. Absurd. Yet you circularly respond "both are equivalent theories." I reject that claim, and merely repeating yourself won't convince me of anything.
Well, I'm not going to argue with you on the validity of a mathematical model. Unless you can concede the simple-minded idea that infinitely many models may be proposed that describe any data set, then there really isn't anything else I can say to you except you're totally and utterly wrong. *shrug*

Again, nonsense.

C0 + C1x + C2X**2 + C3X**3 + C4x**4 + . . . . is a general polynomial expression. You want to claim that infinitely many expressions of that form can equivalently be used to describe a given physical phenomenon. But that's nonsense. Consider for example:

C0 + C1x + C2x**2 (where x in this case is time) expresses distance traveled in a gravitational field as a function of time. You want to claim that:

C0' + C1'x + C2'x**2 + C3'x**3 is an identical "model." But that's absurd. In fact, the second expression can more accurately take into account variations in the gravitational field (for example, the change in gravitation as the distance to a body decreases). And even higher order terms can be added to increase accuracy. I know this for a fact: for many years, I worked on an earth gravitational model (in order to improve long-term predictions of satellite orbits), and we used no less than 12 terms.

So although as an approximation you might say that lower- and higher-order expression are equivalent, they are in fact completely different.

What is more, you're using mathematical expression in your arguments, yet then slyly substituting God. You're adding a "God term" into a theory, then stating that what results is both a theory AND equivalent to the unadulterated theory. Sorry, unless you can inform us how to USE the "God term" in evaluating the expression, you've merely added noise.

Please, tell us what the coefficient is for God. Tell us what the initial conditions are with which to set the God term. Tell us ANYTHING that allows the God term to be usefully incorporated into a theoretical framework, or tell us what experiments we might perform to refine the God term. What? You just want to leave the God term vague and mysterious and insist that its addition doesn't invalidate the model/theory?

It's amazing to me that someone can be in graduate school in science yet have so little understanding of what science is.

As I wrote earlier, I don't mock those who arrive at their beliefs as a matter of discipline. But it's difficult NOT to mock someone with such vapid ideas as yourself.
 

palehorse

Lifer
Dec 21, 2005
11,521
0
76
Originally posted by: shira
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: shira
But, again, you implicitly stating that God + theory = theory. That is the flaw in your argument. If right-hand side of your equation is a theory, the left-hand side is most certainly NOT the same theory (and not a theory at all), since there are "terms on the left that can't be filled in. You have undefined "quantities" that cannot be resolved. You have no way of setting up a "value" for "God."
I thought you were an engineer and so this would appeal to you, but apparently you don't grasp the concept of a model. If I change around the model slightly, using something like the diffusion equation, which governs conservation of energy/mass/momentum,
du/dt=D*d^2u/dx^2,
then D is a parameter characterizing something about how viscous a material is, how a material diffuses, how a material conducts heat, or several other possibilites. The model tells us nothing about the value of this parameter, so it is determined experimentally, often using a different model (e.g. Einstein's equation for the viscosity of a dilute suspension of particles). If I modify the conservation equation to include some source term (like a reaction rate or heat source), then it has the form du/dt=D*d^2u/dx^2+k*u. Both of these models can equally describe a nonreactive system, though the latter is more general and applies to a broader class of systems. Abstracting this idea beyond the realm of such simple differential equations, the parameter 'k' can become very complex, even containing imaginary components (i.e. it is not necessarily a real-valued parameter). So, why does adding this k*u term make the second model invalid?
Furthermore, as I wrote earlier, the addition of God answers nothing in the observed data, and it is thus illegitimiate to add the "God term," meaning that what you have proposed is not a valid theory.

Similarly, in your two equations, if A = ax expressed a valid theory, than B = ax + bi does NOT express the same theory. Only if the bi term addresses observed or expected data would the second expression be a valid theory (and in that case, A = ax would be invalid).

You cannot get around this. You are literally comparing a theory with a non-theory. Absurd. Yet you circularly respond "both are equivalent theories." I reject that claim, and merely repeating yourself won't convince me of anything.
Well, I'm not going to argue with you on the validity of a mathematical model. Unless you can concede the simple-minded idea that infinitely many models may be proposed that describe any data set, then there really isn't anything else I can say to you except you're totally and utterly wrong. *shrug*

Again, nonsense.

C0 + C1x + C2X**2 + C3X**3 + C4x**4 + . . . . is a general polynomial expression. You want to claim that infinitely many expressions of that form can equivalently be used to describe a given physical phenomenon. But that's nonsense. Consider for example:

C0 + C1x + C2x**2 (where x in this case is time) expresses distance traveled in a gravitational field as a function of time. You want to claim that:

C0' + C1'x + C2'x**2 + C3'x**3 is an identical "model." But that's absurd. In fact, the second expression can more accurately take into account variations in the gravitational field (for example, the change in gravitation as the distance to a body decreases). And even higher order terms can be added to increase accuracy. I know this for a fact: for many years, I worked on an earth gravitational model (in order to improve long-term predictions of satellite orbits), and we used no less than 12 terms.

So although as an approximation you might say that lower- and higher-order expression are equivalent, they are in fact completely different.

What is more, you're using mathematical expression in your arguments, yet then slyly substituting God. You're adding a "God term" into a theory, then stating that what results is both a theory AND equivalent to the unadulterated theory. Sorry, unless you can inform us how to USE the "God term" in evaluating the expression, you've merely added noise.

Please, tell us what the coefficient is for God. Tell us what the initial conditions are with which to set the God term. Tell us ANYTHING that allows the God term to be usefully incorporated into a theoretical framework, or tell us what experiments we might perform to refine the God term. What? You just want to leave the God term vague and mysterious and insist that its addition doesn't invalidate the model/theory?

It's amazing to me that someone can be in graduate school in science yet have so little understanding of what science is.

As I wrote earlier, I don't mock those who arrive at their beliefs as a matter of discipline. But it's difficult NOT to mock someone with such vapid ideas as yourself.
Good luck! I challenged him on essentially the same grounds, the uselessness of a "God" variable, and he replied with what he thought was a witty cliche involving a horse and water... swell.

At this point, I think Cyclo's ONLY point was that "the two concepts are ultimately used to describe the same universe." uhhh, OK. Great!

Where he goes wrong is this hair-brained theory of his own - that is, deciding between the two explanations is always philosophical - which he uses to define the validity of both "theories" equally. He also thinks we don't understand what he's trying to say, as though this concept is so profound that it is beyond some of us.

He came into this thread with the preconceived notion that his own philosophical vs scientific theory was correct, and nothing we write will change his mind. The unfalsifiable and ambiguous nature of the "God" variable doesnt phase him one bit...
 

jonks

Lifer
Feb 7, 2005
13,918
20
81
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
I was trying to say that the people subscribing to those ideas are demonized. The amount of hatred directed in their direction on this forum is amazing. The hatred is what I'm trying to rail against here. The details don't matter to me, but the idea of a common ground is of the utmost importance so that we can have at least some basic respect for each other. If we cannot achieve that basic respect, then all is lost and debate becomes absolutely meaningless. The problem is that you (and many others) somehow see the religious and scientific answers as answering questions differently. I tried to demonstrate in the OP how they are not necessarily different at all. In fact, they can be very much consistent and in harmony.

I edited your post above for brevity.

I think there are several issues you address. One is the animosity science has for religious attempts at explaining natural phenomena. This can be explained by various historical reasons, namely the war religion has waged for centuries against science, or really on anyone who asks uncomfortable (heretical) questions that may "reduce" god's mystery or the domain of the Church. Religion saw its sphere of influence shrinking and responded not by seeking to reconcile differences but by trying to silence those questions. This in turn engendered a distrust, and dislike, by scientists of the church when it comes to church explanations of worldly, non-religious matters.

As to vitriol directed at creationists, I think it mostly has to do with the fact that such a belief does not exist in a vacuum, and is usually accompanied by even less rational beliefs, or strict adherence to biblican doctrine as fact. Further angering the non-creationist community is the creationist attempts to impose non-scientific curriculum into schools in classes like biology where there is no room, nor should there be, for discussions about god or the supernatural.

My main problem with the OP comparison has been mentioned by others in the thread, namely that even if unknowable, #2 seems unlikely and ultimately useless as a discussion point, and interjects the supernatural into a question not related to the supernatural. The BBT attempts to explain WHAT happened, but the god variable seems to inject the question WHY. If science is an attempt to rationally explain natural phenomena, is it not completely understandable that someone who for no reason other than arbitrary belief clings to #2 would be likely to offend our sensibilities?
"The universe was created 6000 years ago but god made it look like it had been around for billions of years."
"Why do you think that?"
"The bible says so" or "It's just something I think happened."

That type of response is based on nothing, not even an educated guess, simply a wild conjecture, and is entirely unscientific, and when attempts are made to force such a proposal into the realm of science, it is met with resistence. Further and continued attempts merely create more resistance to the point of frustration, and ultimately anger.

The church is as protective of its sphere as science is of its sphere. Merely examine most Christian attitudes towards Mormonism. They call it a made up religion with weird concepts, as if any religion can be stranger than another since all deal with supernatural beliefs. But if you try to meddle with religious doctrine, you are met with strong resistance.
 

extra

Golden Member
Dec 18, 1999
1,947
7
81
Well the Bible certainly doesn't say the universe was made 6,000 years ago. It says *in the beginning God created the heavens and the earth*.

The Big Bang has had some testable hypothesis made about it (background radiation, expansion of universe) and has held up pretty well.

Fortunately, this means *the universe HAD A BEGINNING* which is VERY compatible with creationism and a God.
 

CycloWizard

Lifer
Sep 10, 2001
12,348
1
81
Originally posted by: spittledip
Is it possible that something affects the clocks themselves? That would seem more likely. I have heard this and I guess I didn't quite understand it so i would have to read some more on it to see if I can get a better grasp of it.

And how does this idea effect matter as to its beginnings?

edit: I was also curious as to why it is still just a theory if there have been tests that have proven it? Or is proven too strong of a word?
Even if it were "proven," which a theory can never truly be, it would still be called a theory. And no, nothing was wrong with the clocks.
 

CycloWizard

Lifer
Sep 10, 2001
12,348
1
81
Originally posted by: shira
Again, nonsense.

C0 + C1x + C2X**2 + C3X**3 + C4x**4 + . . . . is a general polynomial expression. You want to claim that infinitely many expressions of that form can equivalently be used to describe a given physical phenomenon. But that's nonsense. Consider for example:

C0 + C1x + C2x**2 (where x in this case is time) expresses distance traveled in a gravitational field as a function of time. You want to claim that:

C0' + C1'x + C2'x**2 + C3'x**3 is an identical "model." But that's absurd. In fact, the second expression can more accurately take into account variations in the gravitational field (for example, the change in gravitation as the distance to a body decreases). And even higher order terms can be added to increase accuracy. I know this for a fact: for many years, I worked on an earth gravitational model (in order to improve long-term predictions of satellite orbits), and we used no less than 12 terms.

So although as an approximation you might say that lower- and higher-order expression are equivalent, they are in fact completely different.
You fail at math. If I have some polynomial with arbitrarily many terms, I can always form an identical model from a polynomial with arbitrarily more terms by simply setting their coefficients to zero. I can prove this on an abacus.
What is more, you're using mathematical expression in your arguments, yet then slyly substituting God. You're adding a "God term" into a theory, then stating that what results is both a theory AND equivalent to the unadulterated theory. Sorry, unless you can inform us how to USE the "God term" in evaluating the expression, you've merely added noise.

Please, tell us what the coefficient is for God. Tell us what the initial conditions are with which to set the God term. Tell us ANYTHING that allows the God term to be usefully incorporated into a theoretical framework, or tell us what experiments we might perform to refine the God term. What? You just want to leave the God term vague and mysterious and insist that its addition doesn't invalidate the model/theory?

It's amazing to me that someone can be in graduate school in science yet have so little understanding of what science is.

As I wrote earlier, I don't mock those who arrive at their beliefs as a matter of discipline. But it's difficult NOT to mock someone with such vapid ideas as yourself.
Please, tell me what the coefficient is for bacon. We know bacon exists, so what is the coefficient for it? Simple answer: your statements are obviously a red herring and you know it. I used a mathematical example for its simplicity in demonstrating my point - that there are infinitely many models that can describe any data equallly well. You still can't seem to grasp that concept, though that is generally one of the first things an engineer learns in school, and though everyone else in this thread (with the exception of palehorse) has already it accepted as a matter of course. You can make personal attacks on me until the cows come home, but it will never compensate for your inability to understand basic principles.
 

jjzelinski

Diamond Member
Aug 23, 2004
3,750
0
0
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: shira
Again, nonsense.

C0 + C1x + C2X**2 + C3X**3 + C4x**4 + . . . . is a general polynomial expression. You want to claim that infinitely many expressions of that form can equivalently be used to describe a given physical phenomenon. But that's nonsense. Consider for example:

C0 + C1x + C2x**2 (where x in this case is time) expresses distance traveled in a gravitational field as a function of time. You want to claim that:

C0' + C1'x + C2'x**2 + C3'x**3 is an identical "model." But that's absurd. In fact, the second expression can more accurately take into account variations in the gravitational field (for example, the change in gravitation as the distance to a body decreases). And even higher order terms can be added to increase accuracy. I know this for a fact: for many years, I worked on an earth gravitational model (in order to improve long-term predictions of satellite orbits), and we used no less than 12 terms.

So although as an approximation you might say that lower- and higher-order expression are equivalent, they are in fact completely different.
You fail at math. If I have some polynomial with arbitrarily many terms, I can always form an identical model from a polynomial with arbitrarily more terms by simply setting their coefficients to zero. I can prove this on an abacus.
What is more, you're using mathematical expression in your arguments, yet then slyly substituting God. You're adding a "God term" into a theory, then stating that what results is both a theory AND equivalent to the unadulterated theory. Sorry, unless you can inform us how to USE the "God term" in evaluating the expression, you've merely added noise.

Please, tell us what the coefficient is for God. Tell us what the initial conditions are with which to set the God term. Tell us ANYTHING that allows the God term to be usefully incorporated into a theoretical framework, or tell us what experiments we might perform to refine the God term. What? You just want to leave the God term vague and mysterious and insist that its addition doesn't invalidate the model/theory?

It's amazing to me that someone can be in graduate school in science yet have so little understanding of what science is.

As I wrote earlier, I don't mock those who arrive at their beliefs as a matter of discipline. But it's difficult NOT to mock someone with such vapid ideas as yourself.
Please, tell me what the coefficient is for bacon. We know bacon exists, so what is the coefficient for it? Simple answer: your statements are obviously a red herring and you know it. I used a mathematical example for its simplicity in demonstrating my point - that there are infinitely many models that can describe any data equallly well. You still can't seem to grasp that concept, though that is generally one of the first things an engineer learns in school, and though everyone else in this thread (with the exception of palehorse) has already it accepted as a matter of course. You can make personal attacks on me until the cows come home, but it will never compensate for your inability to understand basic principles.

Cyclo, please don't fire off math at me that I don't understand but exactly what is your position if you reject evo then? Are you a strict creationist or do you reject all mainstream theories as to the origin of sentient life?
 
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