An answer to the bible quotes...
I do not much care for homosexuals as a group. I am not going to cast judgment on them. I let the bible speak for itself:
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Leviticus 18:22
Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination. >>
and
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Leviticus 20:13
If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them. >>
Why do people insist on saying that Leviticus in 18:22 states that "You shall not lie with a male as with a woman"means that all homosexuality is wrong. They are not reading and quoting enough of the Bible, they are picking and choosing key words for their use, not God's use. In addition to not recognizing the passages following the mention of same-sex acts, they ignore the preceding passages. Let's back up the passage- start at Lev 18:21 "You shall not give any of your children to devote them by fire to Molech and so profane the name of your God: I am the Lord. You shall not lie with a male as with a woman; it is an abomination. You shall not lie with any beast and defile yourself and neither shall any woman give herself to a beast. Do not defile yourselves by any of these things for by all these the nations I am going to drive out before you become defiled " There it is in all of its worth and glory. These sentences are again addressing paganistic people, rituals that do not worship God, but the creature and are turning themselves over to lust in a religious setting.
It does not address the loving, committed, monogamous relationship of two people.
So the verse is taken out of context by those attempting to condemn homosexuality outright. The verses prior to the prohibition of same sex activities are concerning pagan religions and practices. The verses following the prohibition of same sex activities are concerning pagan religions and people. The entire section of Leviticus is addressing paganistic religious practices, not homosexuality within the confines of a monogamous relationship between two people.
Jesus Christ tells people to reject the rules in Leviticus later in the bible. Sorry I cannot give you the actual quote.
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Romans 1:27
And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet. >>
In Chapter 1 18-32 Paul writes "For the wrath of God is revealed from Heaven against all ungodliness and wickedness of men who by their wickedness suppress the truth. For what can be known about God is plain to them, because God has shown it to them. Ever since the creation of the world His invisible nature, namely His eternal power and deity, has been clearly perceived in the things that have been made. So they are without excuse; for although they knew God, they did not honor Him as God or give thanks to Him, but they became futile in their thinking and their senseless minds were darkened. Claiming to be wise they became fools, and exchanged the glory of immortal God for images resembling mortal man or birds or animals or reptiles. Therefore God gave them up in the lusts of their hearts to impurity to the dishonoring of their bodies among themselves, because they exchanged the truth about God for a lie and worshipped and served the creature rather than the Creator who is blessed for ever. Amen. For this reason God gave them up to dishonorable passions. Their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural and the men likewise gave up natural relations with woman and were consumed with passion for one another, men committing shameless acts with men and receiving in their own persons the due penalty for their error. And since they did not see fit to acknowledge God, He gave them up to a base mind and to improper conduct. They were filled with all manner of wickedness, evil, covetousness, malice. Full of envy, murder, strife, deceit, malignity, they are gossipers, slanderers, haters of God, insolent, haughty, boastful, inventors of evil, disobedient to parents, foolish, faithless, heartless, ruthless. Though they know God's decree that those who do such things deserve to die, they not only do them but approve those who practice them."
Now that was quite a mouthful, so we should proceed through that slowly and focusing on what is being said, why it is being said, to whom, etc.. again, we need to use the outline described above for Leviticus.
First who is the letter written to? The church in Rome. Why was is written? The letter describes a group of people who had literally turned from knowledge of the true and living God and had turned to idols ("Claiming to be wise they became fools, and exchanged the glory of immortal God for images resembling mortal man or birds or animals or reptiles.". Thus, it is important to reread verses 18-32 and everywhere the words "they, them, and their" is used substitute the words: "THE PAGANS" - without doing do one does not come away with a clear and precise understanding of the writing. Without understanding the context, misunderstanding and erroneous interpretation will result. One cannot ignore the historical context in which each of the books was written and fully understand the social, religious, cultural aspects of each group addressed. If one knows the historical facts then one can accurately extract the timeless and universal truths, otherwise one comes away with no useful information.
These sexual acts (some homosexual and some heterosexual) were being performed by pagan people in their pagan temples and with their pagan priests and priestesses. These were part of their religious ceremonial rituals. Sexual acts in religious settings was very common in the ancient world and the priests were both male and female. As Biblical Christians we cannot conceive of sex acts being part of worship. Sex is meant to be reserved as the intimate expression between two people in a bound relationship. The sex acts described above were performed in open defiance to God. Both heterosexual and homosexual acts were performed in open defiance to the rules that the Bible and Christ had laid down.
In Romans 1 nearly everyone who was participating in these sex acts were heterosexual - why? - because the vast majority of people on earth are heterosexual and these sex acts were not to show love, but were motivated from depraved minds acting out of lust ("Therefore God gave them up in the lusts of their hearts". Sex had been separated from love, responsibility, and commitment and was merely a social activity - this is a carry over from the Greek culture. Lust comes from Satan - Love comes from God.
Romans 1 does not paint a picture of people who were naturally homosexual engaging in loving consensual sex rather they were heterosexual who "abandoned" their nature (heterosexuality) for perverse pagan sex acts.
The verses support the fact they were heterosexuals acting out of defiance by stating the woman EXCHANGED natural relations for unnatural and men ABANDONED natural relations with women and were INFLAMED with LUST (not love) for one another. As a homosexual, it is natural to engage in love and sex with the same gender, but it would be unnatural for a heterosexual to do so. These men and women were heterosexual who were engaging in unnatural (for them) acts in paganistic settings.
All of the passages just cited also assume that the translation from original language was correct. If you do a search on this, you find that the meaning of the passages used in Leviticus are unclear, but the writings of Paul are completely misinterpreted by the people of today:
Here in 1 Cor 6:9-10 Paul writes "Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God. Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolators nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders 1nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God"
Again, first to whom was this addressed? It was addressed to the local church in Corinth. Corinth was filled with many pagan temples dedicated to the many gods and goddesses of the time. It is said that the major temple had over 10,000 priest-prostitutes. What Paul addressed here is similar to that he addressed in Romans Chapter 1.
The verses "Do you not know the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God". Are believers in Jesus Christ ever referred to as "the wicked"? NO!!!, Strong's Concordence has over three pages of references to wicked or wickedness - in each passage the words are being used to describe those that have rejected the truth of God's Word and His Son. This passage is not addressing Christians rather it is addressing unbelievers. Regardless of what one does or does not do if they reject Jesus Christ they will not enter the kingdom of heaven.
In many Bibles the verse is translated as homosexual offenders or homosexuals. The original Greek word in the letter was MALAKOI. It is related to the word MALAKOS which literally means "soft". Our current word, malleable comes from malakos, and means bendable. The Greek word MALAKOS is used three other times in the New Testament: twice in Matt 11:8 and once in Luke 7:25. The word MALAKOI cannot be found in any text written before 1 Corinthians (note Matthew and Luke were both written after 1 Corinthians even though they are placed prior to it in the Bible.
Translators have a difficult time knowing what Paul was trying to convey with the word MALAKOI since he coined the word himself and it had no prior usage. When comparing its usage to that in the other three Bible books we find that the word was used to describe soft or fine clothing. Speculation is that the word was used by Paul to mean effeminate; however, not all gay men are effeminate and not all effeminate men are gay. We can use the meaning of malleable, or bendable, or spineless. This would describe a person who is unable to stand up for his own beliefs. The Greek Interlinear Bible uses the word "voluptuous" to mean one who behaves in a provocative or sexually loose manner, which brings us back to prostitute. The Interlinear Greek-English New Testament presents the passage actually meaning "....neither fornicators, nor idolators, nor adulterers, nor abusers of themselves as women, nor abusers of themselves with men." If one then goes to the Strong's Concordance and looks up each of these terms we find that : fornicators - literally means on who prostitutes himself; idolators means idolator; adulterer means adulterer; abusers of themselves as women literally means one who is soft and without a backbone, spineless; and abusers of themselves with men literally means male prostitute.
Two words Paul could have used were PHILERASTIS and PEDERASTIS to convey the meaning of men who engage in sexual acts with other men for pleasure. These were used to mean homosexuals, many times in reference to the devotees of the pagan deity Eros (from which we get the word erotic). Also notice the similarity of pederastis to the modern word pedophilia. As history tells us, it was common for high ranking men in Roman society to engage in sexual acts with boys. As disgusting (and I believe sinful) as that behavior is, Paul did not choose that word to convey his message. So what could be more abominable to God then pedophilia - paganism, the worshipping of a deity other than the One True God, so as not to confuse other sexual acts with temple sexual acts Paul did not use these words.
Other words that Paul could have used to mean homosexual were CANADI and EXSOLETE; however, again he did not use the commonly used vocabulary.
St. Jerome's Vulgate version of the Bible translates Qadeshen as EFFEMINATI . This word means someone who dons female clothing in order to serve as a temple prostitute. St. Jerome translated Malakoi as MOLLES, which is a synonym for EFFEMINATI and therefore also means temple cult prostitute. St. Jerome finally describes ARSENOKOITAI as a person who uses the services of a malakoi or molles or the "customer" of the temple cult prostitute. Referring back to the Interlinear Greek-English New Testament the phrase "abusers of themselves as women" fits well with St. Jerome's description of a man who dresses in women's clothing and provides sexual services in the temple. Also the phrase "abusers of themselves with men" correlates well with St. Jerome's description of those who partake in the sexual activities of the temple prostitutes who are male.
Thus from several sources it becomes clear that what Paul was referring to in this passage were those people who engage in sexual activity as part of a worship service from a pagan deity.
In summation, it is quite easy to quote passages when you do not know the true meanings. If you research the bible, and really dig into the historical significance of what is written, you find a much different viewpoint on life today.
Most of this text was taken from here:
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