Originally posted by: flood
1/3 = 0.3333...
1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3 = 1
0.3333... + 0.3333... + 0.3333... = 0.9999...
1 = 0.9999...
Originally posted by: flood
1/3 = 0.3333...
1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3 = 1
0.3333... + 0.3333... + 0.3333... = 0.9999...
1 = 0.9999...
No.Originally posted by: Zakath15
Yes and no. For all intents and purposed, 0.999999.... is 1. (0.9999999... eventually converges to 1)
this has everything to do with roundingOriginally posted by: Haircut
This has nothing to do with rounding, approximate answers or anything like that.Originally posted by: Czar
1.000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000...... = 1
0.999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999...... ~= 1
just depends how you round it
its like saying that 1/3 is the same as 0.3, which it isnt
0.999.... is the same number as 1.
There are other ways to prove it that the one shown here, but it doesn't change the fact that they are two ways of writing the same number.
Originally posted by: spidey07
Contains the series and actual proof
http://mathforum.org/dr.math/faq/faq.0.9999.html
Originally posted by: Czar
this has everything to do with roundingOriginally posted by: Haircut
This has nothing to do with rounding, approximate answers or anything like that.Originally posted by: Czar
1.000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000...... = 1
0.999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999...... ~= 1
just depends how you round it
its like saying that 1/3 is the same as 0.3, which it isnt
0.999.... is the same number as 1.
There are other ways to prove it that the one shown here, but it doesn't change the fact that they are two ways of writing the same number.
is 0.3333... the same as 0.3 ?
Originally posted by: Kyteland
Originally posted by: spidey07
Contains the series and actual proof
http://mathforum.org/dr.math/faq/faq.0.9999.html
I actually showed that same proof to two of my coworkers earlier and they said that the limits thing is still an approximation because the summation never terminates.
I think they are full of it.
Originally posted by: Haircut
No.Originally posted by: Zakath15
Yes and no. For all intents and purposed, 0.999999.... is 1. (0.9999999... eventually converges to 1)
0.9999... is 1, it doesn't converge to anything.
The series:
Sum [i = 1 to n] 9 * 0.1^i
converges to 1 as n tends to infinity.
No, clearly it isn't.Originally posted by: Czar
this has everything to do with roundingOriginally posted by: Haircut
This has nothing to do with rounding, approximate answers or anything like that.Originally posted by: Czar
1.000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000...... = 1
0.999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999...... ~= 1
just depends how you round it
its like saying that 1/3 is the same as 0.3, which it isnt
0.999.... is the same number as 1.
There are other ways to prove it that the one shown here, but it doesn't change the fact that they are two ways of writing the same number.
is 0.3333... the same as 0.3 ?
Originally posted by: spidey07
Contains the series and actual proof
http://mathforum.org/dr.math/faq/faq.0.9999.html
Originally posted by: Czar
actually after reading http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/57040.html this, it got me thinking
if 1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3 = 1 then how come 0.333... + 0.333... + 0.333... = 1 ?
both are right in my opninion
yesOriginally posted by: TuxDave
Originally posted by: Czar
actually after reading http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/57040.html this, it got me thinking
if 1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3 = 1 then how come 0.333... + 0.333... + 0.333... = 1 ?
both are right in my opninion
Because 1/3 = 0.333...?
the Anandtech Moderator probablyOriginally posted by: bleeb
But anyways... is the same proof recognized by all the mathematical societies? who is the "last word" on this particular subject?
Originally posted by: bleeb
But anyways... is the same proof recognized by all the mathematical societies? who is the "last word" on this particular subject?
Originally posted by: TuxDave
Originally posted by: bleeb
But anyways... is the same proof recognized by all the mathematical societies? who is the "last word" on this particular subject?
There's bound to be a society that disagrees with something. I was in a logic class one day and this is what one particular society believed.
Given:
If you live in London, you get $100
If you don't live in London, you get $100
Now they completely believed that if you didn't tell them where you lived, they cannot tell you if you get $100. 0_o