Is 1 = 0.9999......

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TuxDave

Lifer
Oct 8, 2002
10,571
3
71
That proof looks good to me. I believe 0.9999... = 1. For those who don't believe still, show me 1-0.999... doesn't equal 0.

And if you say it equals 0.000000.....001... there's an infinite number of zeros, so that '1' never really exists, so technically 1-0.999... = 0
 

Haircut

Platinum Member
Apr 23, 2000
2,248
0
0
Originally posted by: Zakath15
Yes and no. For all intents and purposed, 0.999999.... is 1. (0.9999999... eventually converges to 1)
No.
0.9999... is 1, it doesn't converge to anything.

The series:

Sum [i = 1 to n] 9 * 0.1^i

converges to 1 as n tends to infinity.


 

Czar

Lifer
Oct 9, 1999
28,510
0
0
Originally posted by: Haircut
Originally posted by: Czar
1.000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000...... = 1
0.999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999...... ~= 1

just depends how you round it
its like saying that 1/3 is the same as 0.3, which it isnt
This has nothing to do with rounding, approximate answers or anything like that.
0.999.... is the same number as 1.

There are other ways to prove it that the one shown here, but it doesn't change the fact that they are two ways of writing the same number.
this has everything to do with rounding
is 0.3333... the same as 0.3 ?
 

TuxDave

Lifer
Oct 8, 2002
10,571
3
71
Originally posted by: Czar
Originally posted by: Haircut
Originally posted by: Czar
1.000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000...... = 1
0.999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999...... ~= 1

just depends how you round it
its like saying that 1/3 is the same as 0.3, which it isnt
This has nothing to do with rounding, approximate answers or anything like that.
0.999.... is the same number as 1.

There are other ways to prove it that the one shown here, but it doesn't change the fact that they are two ways of writing the same number.
this has everything to do with rounding
is 0.3333... the same as 0.3 ?

No it's not, but we're claiming 0.333.... = 1/3, that's different

 

BruinEd03

Platinum Member
Feb 5, 2001
2,399
1
0
Originally posted by: Kyteland
Originally posted by: spidey07
Contains the series and actual proof

http://mathforum.org/dr.math/faq/faq.0.9999.html

I actually showed that same proof to two of my coworkers earlier and they said that the limits thing is still an approximation because the summation never terminates.

I think they are full of it.


Congratulations, your co-workers have just destroyed the foundation for caclulus

-Ed
 

Orsorum

Lifer
Dec 26, 2001
27,631
5
81
Originally posted by: Haircut
Originally posted by: Zakath15
Yes and no. For all intents and purposed, 0.999999.... is 1. (0.9999999... eventually converges to 1)
No.
0.9999... is 1, it doesn't converge to anything.

The series:

Sum [i = 1 to n] 9 * 0.1^i

converges to 1 as n tends to infinity.

Bad terminology on my part... I'll explain something or other later (after I'm done watching the Simpsons).
 

Haircut

Platinum Member
Apr 23, 2000
2,248
0
0
Originally posted by: Czar
Originally posted by: Haircut
Originally posted by: Czar
1.000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000...... = 1
0.999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999...... ~= 1

just depends how you round it
its like saying that 1/3 is the same as 0.3, which it isnt
This has nothing to do with rounding, approximate answers or anything like that.
0.999.... is the same number as 1.

There are other ways to prove it that the one shown here, but it doesn't change the fact that they are two ways of writing the same number.
this has everything to do with rounding
is 0.3333... the same as 0.3 ?
No, clearly it isn't.
When we are talking about an infinite number of 9s however, it isn't that the number rounds up to 1, it is actually 1.

 

bleeb

Lifer
Feb 3, 2000
10,868
0
0
Originally posted by: spidey07
Contains the series and actual proof

http://mathforum.org/dr.math/faq/faq.0.9999.html

BAH HUMBUG.... Sounds like heresy to me.


they are losing the precision by messing with fractions rather than pure decimals. ifyou stick with decimals... even till the digits to the right of the decimal reach infinity... it still going to be 0.9999999999999 and not exactly 1.

 

spidey07

No Lifer
Aug 4, 2000
65,469
5
76
bleep,

you can believe what you want.

But there really isn't any debate to this.

They are the same number. Just as 1 + 1 = 2. (or 1.999...)
 

bleeb

Lifer
Feb 3, 2000
10,868
0
0
But anyways... is the same proof recognized by all the mathematical societies? who is the "last word" on this particular subject?
 

Czar

Lifer
Oct 9, 1999
28,510
0
0
Originally posted by: bleeb
But anyways... is the same proof recognized by all the mathematical societies? who is the "last word" on this particular subject?
the Anandtech Moderator probably
 

TuxDave

Lifer
Oct 8, 2002
10,571
3
71
Originally posted by: bleeb
But anyways... is the same proof recognized by all the mathematical societies? who is the "last word" on this particular subject?

There's bound to be a society that disagrees with something. I was in a logic class one day and this is what one particular society believed.

Given:
If you live in London, you get $100
If you don't live in London, you get $100

Now they completely believed that if you didn't tell them where you lived, they cannot tell you if you get $100. 0_o
 

bleeb

Lifer
Feb 3, 2000
10,868
0
0
Originally posted by: TuxDave
Originally posted by: bleeb
But anyways... is the same proof recognized by all the mathematical societies? who is the "last word" on this particular subject?

There's bound to be a society that disagrees with something. I was in a logic class one day and this is what one particular society believed.

Given:
If you live in London, you get $100
If you don't live in London, you get $100

Now they completely believed that if you didn't tell them where you lived, they cannot tell you if you get $100. 0_o

EXACTLY MY POINT.
 
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