Calculus uses limits to compute EXACT areas. Riemann sums are approximations. The integral of a function is the LIMIT of the riemann summation of the rectangles that approximate that area. The limit is the exact area, calculus allows us to find this exact area.
I don't see how you can construe that calculus is an approximation.
The first part of this is completely true. However, when someone can explain to me how Euler's formula (e^i*pi) is not an approximation I will believe you. Basically what this formula is saying is that one infinite number to another infinite number gives you an integer. This to me makes no sense, and this is where I have always questioned the validity of calculus. I am not really saying I do not believe it, since I have taken it for awhile, but what I am saying is that the whole process of calculus
is an approximation. I hope that we can continue this discussion without idiots posting every 5 seconds. Because someone doesn't agree with your so called
proof, that doesn't mean you have to go around and call them an idiot. It really just shows how much of an idiot you are for being so myopic. I know the mathematical proofs are there for .999 repeating = 1, however no one here will ever experience "infinity". By this token, it is very difficult for people to sit here and say "I can't believe you won't agree with me, I'm right your wrong" Look, understand that in an "argument" or debate, for your point to be taken seriously, calling someone names will not fly. Also understand that in theory .999 repeating will never = 1. I for one do not believe that .999 repeating = 1, and it will take more proof other than limits (which I belive to be very shady anyways) for me to change my mind. I read over at another forum some very good proof for everyone's case however, showing that they are equal. I will try and dig up the link and post back later.
edit: forgot to add, silverpig you are bringing some great points to the argument, keep them coming.