Q quizzelsnatch Senior member Nov 12, 2004 860 0 0 Dec 5, 2006 #1 anybody explain to me why limit of (x+1)^(1/x) as x approaches 0 = e? i thought it'd be 1, but i don't get why it's e. IT DOESN'T MAKE SENSE!
anybody explain to me why limit of (x+1)^(1/x) as x approaches 0 = e? i thought it'd be 1, but i don't get why it's e. IT DOESN'T MAKE SENSE!
S StatsManD Member Dec 5, 2006 138 0 0 Dec 5, 2006 #2 Think of this limit: (1+1/n)^n as n - > infiniti is equal to e. this is the definition of e.
Q quizzelsnatch Senior member Nov 12, 2004 860 0 0 Dec 5, 2006 #3 okay, makes a bit more sense now. thanks.