JD50
Lifer
- Sep 4, 2005
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Originally posted by: dguy6789
Originally posted by: JD50
Originally posted by: dguy6789
Originally posted by: JD50
Originally posted by: dguy6789
Polanski and the victim settled out of court and the victim received an undisclosed amount of cash. The victim has also publicly called for the case to be dropped. Not that I agree with anything he did, but apparently he paid a price that satisfied the victim(Morally, that is all that ever need be done in a criminal case). Why punish him further?
So basically as long as someone can afford to pay off the victim anything goes. Great.
Polanski wronged a person. He made it up to the victim to the point where the victim is satisfied with the end result. Do you have a problem with this? No one is more important than the victim when it comes to justice. If the victim feels that justice has been served, then that is all that matters.
Yes, I have a problem with this. You're basically saying that rich people can do whatever they want without any consequences as long as they pay a fine.
If the victim is okay with it, then why not? If the one and only victim of the crime is now content, then there is no longer a problem. If the victim decides that he has paid the price for the crime, then all is well. Everything else is just superfluous legal junk. I will argue that the victim feeling that justice is served is definitely more important than just punishing the criminal and ignoring the victim's feelings on the matter. A fine is definitely a valid form of punishment as well so it's not like he didn't lose anything.
Does the victim get to keep her money if he gets punished formally for the crime? Should he have to pay for one crime twice?
Once again, you're saying that the rich should be able to do whatever they want as long as they pay a fine, that's moronic and incredibly dangerous. Also, as Greenman points out, there are other reasons for punishing a criminal and putting him in jail.