imported_tss4
Golden Member
- Jun 30, 2004
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Originally posted by: Sultan
Originally posted by: tss4
Originally posted by: Sultan
I have provided evidence. If you would only read the posts...
The system of government I speak of is not unequal
I read all the posts. There was no evidence. Only you saying that unequal tax amounts were fair.
Did you not read my subsequent posts after I posted the first one in which I incorrectly stated that Jizyah is higher than Zakat? I have repeatedly stated that while Muslims pay Zakat, the non-Muslims pay Jizyah. Equal but distributed in a different way. The Islamic government, in its discretion can also charge higher taxes from both Muslims and non-Muslims. Additionally, the non-Muslims can choose whether to enter into the contract of paying Jizyah or not. This is the concept of Jizyah is a nut-shell.
I read those. Here's my problem. You stated that Jizyah and Zakat are sperate but equal. So that would imply the monetary amount is equal. You're reasoning goes further to say that the reason they are different instead of just using one tax is because Mulsims are paying for religous services that non-muslims are not but are offseting that additional costs through military service. So the value of their military service is offseting the fact they get a few more services than the non-muslims get. I still don't agree with all this but I can see where you would make a case that this tax is equal. However, after all this you go further to say that Jizyah is something that non-muslims go into negotiations with the muslim government to determine. If, they're negotiating it, how can it have the same monetary amount as the Zakat? That would mean that as the non-muslims determine the Jizyah, the zakat would have to be adjusted to keep it equal.